Could a Persian-Arabic pidgin become an official language?

I had an idea for a Persian-Arabic pidgin in my Buyid Empire TL where such a pidgin would become widely spoken and, eventually, become one of the official languages of the empire. Given that the Buyids practiced, to some extent, a form of dual rule in which political power was held by the Shahanshah and spiritual power was held by the Caliph. In OTL, the Caliph provided the Buyids with legitimacy while they did whatever they wanted but in my TL the Caliph has a much more significant role than in it did.

Needless to say, I must ask, is this plausible? I am aware that I have little education in historical matters so I am willing to learn from those wiser than me.
 
It's not really plausible IMO. You're more likely to just see either one or the other language adopted, or societal multilingualism, than the formation of a pidgin language. Historically speaking creole languages all are created under specific demographic circumstances that don't seem to be the case here.
 
Both languages adopted a ton of words from each other (particularly Persian), but given the low status of creoles and pidgins historically and the fact Arabic is the sacred language of Islam, means one or the other will inevitably dominate. Since the Buyids were quite influenced by Persian culture (as were the states around them), it doesn't make sense why either they or their subjects would speak a creole language. It would take a huge Arabisation to occur, which as seen everywhere else in the history of the Arab world, results in people speaking some dialect of Arabic. I can't think off the top of my head when any premodern country adopted a creole language as an official language even if the majority of the people could only speak the creole.

If the majority of Persia did switch to a creole language, it wouldn't last long. They'd be speaking a regional dialect of Arabic soon enough. For instance, Moroccans, on the fringe of the Arab world, does not speak a creole, they speak Berber languages or Moroccan Arabic.
 
I can't think off the top of my head when any premodern country adopted a creole language as an official language even if the majority of the people could only speak the creole.

Maybe Ottoman Turkish? It was very different from modern Turkish (as well as the Turkish spoken by the common people back then), with massive Persian and Arabic influence.
 
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Maybe Ottoman Turkish? It was very different from modern Turkish (as well as the Turkish spoken by the common people back then), with massive Persian and Arabic influence.

That's the reverse, where you have a court/administration language which only the upper class can speak. It also might be close to what the OP is asking about given how rather un-Turkish it is. But isn't it normally not considered a creole language?
 
It's not properly a creole, no, but it's the closest thing I can think for what the OP would be looking for.
 
Modern Persian may not be a creole by the exact definition, but its vocabulary is over half Arabic and the grammar is very simplified, so it comes very close to meeting the definition unless you want to split hairs.
 
This is essentially what happened IOTL, except it happened mostly in the Samanid, not Buyid, court. Literary Modern Persian is not a pidgin or a creole in the strict linguistic sense, but it is the result of deep linguistic contact with Arabic that changed it profoundly from the pre-conquest variety, a change that took place in a mixed linguistic environment.
 
Modern Persian may not be a creole by the exact definition, but its vocabulary is over half Arabic and the grammar is very simplified, so it comes very close to meeting the definition unless you want to split hairs.

This is essentially what happened IOTL, except it happened mostly in the Samanid, not Buyid, court. Literary Modern Persian is not a pidgin or a creole in the strict linguistic sense, but it is the result of deep linguistic contact with Arabic that changed it profoundly from the pre-conquest variety, a change that took place in a mixed linguistic environment.

Essentially, this is OTL.
 
@Max Sinister

I don't understand. Pidgins are created for two peoples who speak different languages to effectively communicate with one another. This won't piss off Persians and Arabs, given how the Buyid Empire encompasses both Arab and Persian demographics, a pidgin would be the natural result of this multiculturalism. All I am doing is taking that potential pidgin and turning it into a creole which would then gain official status.

@metalinvader665

The Buyids were only the ruling family, they did not represent the population of their empire. The Buyids in OTL ruled over territories surrounding Baghdad, Ray, and Shiraz. These landmasses would contain hefty amounts of both Arabs and Persians being situated between both Arab and Persian lands. Had the Buyids survived longer than in OTL and gained internal stability a pidgin could potentially form as a way for non-Persian and non-Arabic speakers to talk to one another.

The area which the Buyids held were already Arabized. We're talking about Baghdad, Ray, and Shiraz, not northern Persia. While the Buyids did revive Persian culture to some extent, it was not to the same degree as the Samanids. Furthermore, the Buyids did not seek to replace Arabic culture in their region, rather they employed a form of syncretism, reconciling both Persian and Arabic culture. If the Buyids continue with these reforms, I see no reason why they wouldn't sponsor a Arabo-Persian creole as an official language.
 
@fraa Jad

I may not know much about pidgins but I am aware that continuous contact with at least three different languages is necessary for the development of a pidgin with one of these languages being dominant over the other. This cannot happen in isolated places where contact between different languages is low. Mesopotamia is perfect for this and, in fact, it has happened before. Many languages in Mesopotamia were created once as pidgins between several different tribes and city-states which, through consistent contact, became full-blown languages by themselves.
 
@Burton K Wheeler

What I am trying to aim for is not the borrowing of certain words or simplistic grammar and morphology. What I wish to achieve is a synthesis between both Arabic and Persian, especially in terms of grammar (a combination of an indo-European and Semitic grammar would simply be fascinating). Yes, they would share some similar words found in both Arabic and Persian but this cannot be compared to the originality which would arise from such a creole.
 
Many languages in Mesopotamia were created once as pidgins between several different tribes and city-states which, through consistent contact, became full-blown languages by themselves.
Such as? Most Mesopotamian languages from Akkadian down to Iraqi Arabic are Semitic, and non-Semitic ones have such complexity that they clearly are not creoles (i.e. Sumerian).

What I wish to achieve is a synthesis between both Arabic and Persian, especially in terms of grammar
Creoles have simplified grammar, not a mix of grammar of multiple languages (whatever that would look like).
 
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