Codified Norse/Germanic Culture

I know that this has been brought up numerous times before, but I figured that perhaps Augustus would have perhaps employed someone more competent than the glorified tax-farmer Varus in 7 C.E. Magna Germania remains a Roman province for about century longer before civil strife, like which followed after the death of Nero, encourages the Germanics into breaking away from Roman rule. I mean even before Teutoburg, it seems that they weren't under full control, they were more vassals than anything else. After order is restored, the Romano-Germans manage to convince the Romans that they willing to remain allies, and even continue to supply them with warriors.

By this time, they're already been culturally assimilated by the Romans, and a good number of their noble class are even literate, given that as former subjects of Rome, it was common practice to send their children as hostages to the Imperial Court, where they recieved a fine education, and by now they had acquired a taste in literature and all things that go with it. Their society makes a steady transition from tribal to feudal. And perhaps by then, their native religion takes on a new sophistication.

By the time of the Christianization and decline of the Roman Empire in the west, and even with the adoption of those Germanics that had adopted Arianism and begin carving out kingdoms as they moved westward, the tribes that remained in Germania retained the advanced form of their native culture form a seperate civilized group in Europe, so Christianity is at least confined to Italy, Spain, and maybe as far a France.

The Byzantines have their Emperor and Patriarch, western Europeans have their Pope, the Muslims have their Caliphs, and the Germanics and Scandinavians have their Kings and priests. And a Germanic/ Norse cultural bloc stretching as far as the British Isles to Russia exists.
 
I don't if anyones bothered to look at this yet. But with a a more unifying theme to Germanic culture in the first millenium, would the places that they had ever visited have seen some solid colonization efforts? I imagine that Germany, north-eastern Europe, the British Isles, Scandinavia, and even places around the Caspian and Black Seas may have seen more aggressive Norse expansionism.

Would Turkic Nomad tribes and Slavs assimilate into a more advanced Norse civilization? Would it give the Eastern Orthodox Christians and Muslims some competition around the Black Sea region?

Wouldn't the vastness of Russia prove secure fertile ground for sophisticated Norse religion to develop?

With centralized Norse and Germanic rule from Britain to Germany extant, should this be sufficient to limit Catholic Christianity to France, Italy, and northern Spain?
 
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By this time, they're already been culturally assimilated by the Romans, and a good number of their noble class are even literate, given that as former subjects of Rome, it was common practice to send their children as hostages to the Imperial Court, where they recieved a fine education, and by now they had acquired a taste in literature and all things that go with it. Their society makes a steady transition from tribal to feudal. And perhaps by then, their native religion takes on a new sophistication.

If the Germanic tribes became feudal and sedentary, why would they later migrate to the west?
 
If the Germanic tribes became feudal and sedentary, why would they later migrate to the west?

For most Germanics, it was the depredations of the Huns that encouraged them to storm into Roman-held western Europe. But if they remain strong against even them, then they might not need to uproot. If the Codified Polytheist Germanics become the dominant majority, then any christian minorities might want to take themselves to the west, if they're being persecuted or marginalized.

Perhaps I should have said they might expand and conquer the lands of the south, instead of just migrating all together. I just want to find a way to reinvent the Germanic religion, so it could become an unassailable, expansionist idealogy, an take it to most places where the Norse historically went.
 

Stephen

Banned
If the Germanic tribes became feudal and sedentary, why would they later migrate to the west?

Despite being sedentary why did so many Europeans migrate to North America and other places during th age of exploration. If they have full fuedalism then only the first son inherits the land, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sons will have to seek there fortunes elswhere.
 
Also, lots of landless or disinherited knights and nobles that eagerly joined the Crusades in the Medieval Era did so because they wanted their own estates. Even if the Germanics managed to make the transition from tribal to feudal society before the Fourth to Fifth Century, whats to stop them from expanding when needs must? If anything, Rome may have been in even more danger of foreign invasion.
 
I should have considered this earlier, but if Germanic culture had become more urbanized and advanced, and had codified their theology before the fall of western Roman Empire, the Franks might not have needed to convert to Catholicism, nor the Vandals and Goths had needed to adopt Arianism. I was sort of wanting the Germanics to adopt the more relevent aspects of a sophisticated culture, while allowing them to persue the achievements that the Norse had done during the Viking Era, but I don't if one can have it both ways.
 
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