Charles I of Spain has more than one son

Charles I of Spain, also HRE Charles V, had one surviving son, otl's Philip II (1526-1598) with his wife Isabella of Portugal, but he also had three stillborn sons: Ferdinand (b.1529:d.1530), Juan (b. 1537:d.1538) and an unnamed son (b.1539) now Philip II had to constantly remarry to try and produce male issue and had the problem of managing such a vast realm.

What consequences might there have been had one of the three other sons Charles I had with his wife, survived? Would they have been given rulership over the low countries instead of Philip? Would they remain in Spain?

And furthermore, would that put more or less pressure on Philip to produce a male heir, if he has a brother, or brothers kicking about?
 
He would become the Duke of Burgundy, Guelders, Limburg, blablabla; any other would most likely join the church or something.

For pressure, well it is his duty to produce a heir, even Philip of Orleans did it, he may feel personnel.
 
He would become the Duke of Burgundy, Guelders, Limburg, blablabla; any other would most likely join the church or something.

For pressure, well it is his duty to produce a heir, even Philip of Orleans did it, he may feel personnel.

Hmm very true, I suppose then that this second son would have to deal with the dutch revolt, or might perhaps be more willing to mediate compared to his brother, as he'd hold it independently would he not?
 
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