Can you find a reference for that? I've been looking into this myself and haven't been able to find anything concrete on what the House can do after someone has assumed the acting presidency. I can't post my next update until this is resolved. I think it would be most amusing if the House could go on with normal business, but retain the right to select a proper president at any time.
Well, I've been scouring web sites.
I've looked at the following places:
1.
House Rules Committee site.
2. Also
here for a list of references on House Rules from the Rules Cmte. The best one is Hind's Precendents of the House.
3.
House Rules
4. on
Congressional precedence for the selection
And I've finally found the answer
here (an excerpt from Hind's Precedents of the House). It outlines the rules adopted by the House in 1801 and 1825. In 1801, adjournment was forbidden until the question resolved and the doors were sealed. In 1825, the rules allowed for these provisions to be overriden, but only by by a vote of the States. I think it's pretty clear that the House couldn't take up any other business until it had selected a President, even if it went past the deadline of March 4th / January 20th. This was a bit more vague in 1801, because the 12th Amendment hadn't been passed. In 1996, with both the 12th and the 20th Amendment, things are fairly clear.
The prohibition on taking up other business comes from a couple of sources: while selecting a President, the House is sitting in a Committee of the Whole; this limits what business they can take up. The prohibition on adjournment may further apply not only to the House, but to the House sitting as a Cmte of the Whole. Hence the House can't exit the committee to pursue normal business.
Now the precedent is thus fairly clear. However, there might be a valid arguement as to whether this precedent is an expression of a Constitutional requriement or not. IMO, it is. It would cause an unprecedented amount of crisis if the House could extend the "interregnum" period indefinitely.
However, the rules of the House are formed at the discretion of the House (Article I). Hence, if there's suitable political consensus to take a certain direction, the House can change the rules. However, given the situation with the defection of key Republican Congressman, I doubt you'd have such a consensus--especially because the 1825 rules appear to state that question of order (and thus of changing the rules) normally decided "per capita" (i.e. by individual members) would be decided by a vote of the states. Hence, the defecting Republicans from Delaware and NV could probably block any move to circumvent the rules.
Does this help? Also, I am
such a nerd.