[Challenge] non Indo-European Europe

Basque, Etruscan and Finnish are in place OTL and could have been dominant. What other candidates are available? PoD before 2000 BC means that just about anything might succeed.
 
If the Anatolian origin model is correct, the timeframe for the POD is too late.
If going with the Steppe model, which appears to attract more scholarly consensus, the best way to do it is to a have a stronger Tripol'ye culture, or, better yet, a Tripolye-derived culture that incorporates some of the advantages developed by the presumed speakers of Proto-Indeuropean (assumed to be the steppe cultures of the Dnieper, their eastern neighbors) and stays primarily agricultural while exapanding eastwards.
The presumed *IE speaking groups east of the Don (thought to be ancestral to Indo-Iranians and Tocharians in particular) would probably still be there and develop a pastoral economy with much of the same traits known historically, but they they may not spread westward in front of a mass of farmers all the way to the Don.
The collapse of Tripolye seems to be connected to climate change, but prior to that, about 4000 BCE, you may have an earlier assimilation of fully sedentary life by Western *IE speakers, which would in turn bring about at least partial linguistic assimilation.
You'd see much more continuity with Old Europe ITTL, and of course much more linguistic diversity in the subcontinent.
David Anthony suggested (but proof is thin) that Old European might be a branch of Afro-Asiatic, which would probably turn out to be the dominant language group in much of Europe ITTL. In the North, of course, Uralic would still probably dominate.
 
Basque, Etruscan and Finnish are in place OTL and could have been dominant. What other candidates are available? PoD before 2000 BC means that just about anything might succeed.

Etruscan may have been an Anatolian language, hence part of IE.

If the Yamnaya (early or proto-IE) expansion either never happened or was directed in an easterly/southerly direction, the descendants of the early European farmers would presumably still be speaking languages derived from their original languages. Euskara (the language of the Basques) is the only surviving such language, but others survived into Classical times.

The Paleo-Sardinean language died out in Roman times, but we have Paleo-Sardinean toponyms which are clearly related to (but slightly different from) those of the Basques. The Sicans and Elymians of classical Sicily spoke non-IE languages and may have been distantly related to Euskara (the Sicans apparently had a tradition, recorded by Thucydides, that they had originally emigrated from Iberia).

Aquitanian was closely related to Euskara, and may have been its direct ancestor. It appears to have been related to Iberian, a non-IE language recorded in classical times. Tartessian was another non-IE language spoken in Iberia, of unknown affinities.

By the time that the few surviving non-IE languages (presumably descended from the language of the early farmers) of southwestern Europe were recorded, they had already been differentiating for 6000 years. That's plenty of time to diverge from each other from a single language-- as much time as all the IE languages have had from their initial expansion to today. Add another 2000 years to diverge, and I expect that the language family would be more varied than the current IE family.

Of course there would presumably be other language families in a non-IE Europe. The descendants of the original hunter-gatherers might still speak versions of their original languages in isolated and/or non-agricultural regions, and the Finno-Ugric speakers would still exist as well.
 
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As others have pointed out, it´s totally doable with such an early PoD. Drawback is that we wouldn`t recognise anything we know.
(A thousand years later, we`re into the historical era in some places, and the challenge may still be doable with powerful Canaanite and Egyptian Empires dominating the Mediterranean, if they`re more bent on expansion and cultural assimilation (like, say, OTL´s Romans were). If they gave the Luwians, the Greeks and the inhabitants of the Italian peninsula languages which would be to Phoenician what OTL´s ROmance languages are to Latin... we might well end up with most of Europe speaking Afro-Asiatic languages. For writing a TL, this might be narratively better.)
 
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