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Is there any way that Europe could have developed a common language, rather than the current polyglot of tongues? Up through the Renaissance Latin was the language of science and law (and religion, of course), but the usage never filtered down to the general population. I've seen it argued that the development of the printing press actually aided in establishing and protecting local languages, since many printed works were in the vernacular.

Would a lengthier reign by the Roman Empire have helped? Imposition by above by a European dictator? A policy by the Catholic Church to establish Latin as the lingua universalis?
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