Challenge: Byzantine court goes in exile in Spain

How could the Palaiologos dynasty and Byzantine court go in exile in Spain in 1453 when Constantinople is conquered, or 1460 when Morea falls?
 
'Spain' at this time does not exist but the Iberian peninsula consisted of five kingdoms [in order of size Castille, Portugal, Aragon, Granada and Navarre]. With the Christian nations of Castille, Portugal, Aragon and Navarre considering the Eastern Orthodox Byzantines to have been 'infidels' rather than 'true' [Catholic] Christians which would have made them reluctant if not hostile to them to providing refuge AND the existence of the Muslim kingdom of Granada, I cannot see any reason why the Byzantines would have risked everything to go far away [to say nothing of the Iberian spoken languages having only some vestiges of Greek and an entirely different alphabet].
 
How much portable wealth would this final Byzantine court have? If they go with only the clothes on their backs then they will be tolerated until they slide into oblivion. But if they manage to escape with a large amount of treasure and religious relics then they can set up a new power base wherever they go, perhaps buy a fiefdom. In any case I don't think Spain would be a good place, southern Italy where there are Greek Orthodox communities, or perhaps somewhere on the Black sea would be better I think.
 
How much portable wealth would this final Byzantine court have?
I don't think they had too much, except for their debts of course.

Their best case scenario when going in exile is marrying into some local nobility. I mean cashing their only asset - prestige of the ancient imperial title.
 
I don't think they had too much, except for their debts of course.

Their best case scenario when going in exile is marrying into some local nobility. I mean cashing their only asset - prestige of the ancient imperial title.

Mystras had some wealth still. Considering the Emir of Granada was able to take most of his wealth to Morocco after the Spanish conquest and buy a palace, it seems like the Despot of Morea or Byzantine Emperor could take his wealth after the Ottoman conquest to southern Italy or Spain.
 
Mystras had some wealth still. Considering the Emir of Granada was able to take most of his wealth to Morocco after the Spanish conquest and buy a palace, it seems like the Despot of Morea or Byzantine Emperor could take his wealth after the Ottoman conquest to southern Italy or Spain.

That's what I would have throught, certainly not the vast wealth of Basil II but certainly considerably wealthier than your average Italian or south Russian noble, enough to buy a decent estate or whatever.
 
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