Can Greece become fully Islamic with any pod before 1900 ad?

mad orc

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Can Greece become fully Islamic with any pod before 1900 ad.

Perhaps an aggressive ottoman empire.


Please reply fast. I want it to write a cheap looking pulp fiction story.
 
Well, have the Revolution fail and Mehmed Ali and Ismail's army reign supreme and you've 1) pretty much depopulated the Morea during the war and 2) brought in new and rising Islamic power as overlords

From my readings of the Revolution/war, large areas were effectively depopulated. If Ismail settles his troops or brings in settlers rather than allowing refugees back, then you have effectively Islamicised them
 
What would be the name of Islamic Greece

Al-Yūnān (Arabic pronunciation of Ionia)

The Parthenon will be torn down or fitted with minarets, and a shitload of statues destroyed since they are idolatry.

Edit: yeah this is pre-1900, not ISIS or Taliban takeover.
 
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Al-Yūnān (Arabic pronunciation of Ionia)

The Parthenon will be torn down or fitted with minarets, and a shitload of statues destroyed since they are idolatry.

Well, the Ottomans didn't do that, though they, like the Venetians, did not have a sentimental regard for the place and tended to make use of these buildings in what they would see as a sensible fashion, i.e. store rooms, or as the base for a modern fortress
 
Well, the Ottomans didn't do that, though they, like the Venetians, did not have a sentimental regard for the place and tended to make use of these buildings in what they would see as a sensible fashion, i.e. store rooms, or as the base for a modern fortress

It's not like the Byzantines saw things any differently to the Venetians or Ottomans. The Byzantines converted the Parthenon into a church. I doubt they had much sentiment towards the non-Christian heritage of the place either.
 
I mean? Pretty easily to be honest. One is any number of scenarios that leads to the complete destruction of the Roman Empire, at least in the East. This could be a No Heraclius Scenario, where he keeps his troops in Africa, and then the Roman Empire under Phocas is destroyed in the East and effectively flees in major ways to Africa (which would make quite a powerful Christian Africa IMO) the mix of depopulation and long-term ownership by the Caliphate makes the reason majority Muslim. Easy.

I'd actually love to read a timeline on that premise. Not only due to the irony of the Roman Empire only surviving in Carthage.
 
Diyar-I Rum (Land of the Romans, Greeks were called Roman).
Wasnt the term roman associated with Christianity in the ottoman empire?
I didn't know the answer to this, but Yunan would not be an unacceptable answer, apparently
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Name_of_Greece

On the one hand the Ottomans had divided Greece up into smaller administrative units, and on the other it was part of a larger unit. It had not had much of a distinctive unitary existence before this anyway, with large parts ruled by different people.
Albania doesn't use a turkish or arabized name so I don't see a mayority greek speaking muslim greece calling themselves by an exonym. Also if they are an independent state they would need to highligh differences between them and the turks, and since religion is no longer a factor lenguague is gonna be more important.
 
Albania doesn't use a turkish or arabized name so I don't see a mayority greek speaking muslim greece calling themselves by an exonym. Also if they are an independent state they would need to highligh differences between them and the turks, and since religion is no longer a factor lenguague is gonna be more important.

Well, I was assuming that both the Ottomans, or the Egyptians if they solidified their rule there, would use the term for Greece that was the word in Turkish.

I hadn't actually considered what if this Islamic Greece became indepenent, as that was not part of the OP's question. I do guess it would be a consideration, resurrecting a different naming convention - but why choose the Latin, or the Greek one? Nobody is going to be speaking Greek - well almost no one! I remember learning at uni that Albanian was more common even in OTL than Greek in the big cities (such as they were). Maybe they would look back to the Achaevoi for a name, but I don't know how Arabic deals with that root?
 
Well, I was assuming that both the Ottomans, or the Egyptians if they solidified their rule there, would use the term for Greece that was the word in Turkish.

I hadn't actually considered what if this Islamic Greece became indepenent, as that was not part of the OP's question. I do guess it would be a consideration, resurrecting a different naming convention - but why choose the Latin, or the Greek one? Nobody is going to be speaking Greek - well almost no one! I remember learning at uni that Albanian was more common even in OTL than Greek in the big cities (such as they were). Maybe they would look back to the Achaevoi for a name, but I don't know how Arabic deals with that root?
In cities, but most people lived in the countryside. And having Albania as an example rural people even if they converted to islam were far less lickely to get turkified than city folk who were in constant contact with the Ottoman state.
 
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