Caesar gets the govenership of Syria instead of Gaul.

Let's say that instead of Gaul Julius Caesar got Syria to govern after his first consulship. Does Caesar govern peacefully and pay of his debt quietly or does he take war to the Parthians? Let's say if he does go to war he conquers Mesopotamia and the Parthian empire up to the zargos and breaks Parthian military power for a generation in the same time as his galuish campaigns. How does this affect his realationship with his fellow triumvers, and history? Also his daughter lives and gives Pompey a son.
 
Syria was never an available option. He only got transalpine Gaul because the governor suddenly died at the perfect time. Otherwise, he had Illyria and Cisalpine Gaul and was planning a campaign against the Dacians IIRC.
 
Syria was never an available option. He only got transalpine Gaul because the governor suddenly died at the perfect time. Otherwise, he had Illyria and Cisalpine Gaul and was planning a campaign against the Dacians IIRC.

I'm off the same mind. Also bear in mind that Caesar specifically wanted Gaul (I think) and was helped into the position by Crasssus and the timely death of the governor so it is highly unlikely that Caesar would ever go for Syria even if it was an option when Gaul was open to him.
 
I'm off the same mind. Also bear in mind that Caesar specifically wanted Gaul (I think) and was helped into the position by Crasssus and the timely death of the governor so it is highly unlikely that Caesar would ever go for Syria even if it was an option when Gaul was open to him.
Caesar was also the junior of the 3 triumvirs at this time. If any of them are getting syria, its not going to be him.
 
Syria was never an available option. He only got transalpine Gaul because the governor suddenly died at the perfect time. Otherwise, he had Illyria and Cisalpine Gaul and was planning a campaign against the Dacians IIRC.
Let's say Syrias the only govership available at the time.
 
Let's say Syrias the only govership available at the time.
How? And why is it a proconsular province at this time? And why are pompey and crassus giving Caesar a free hand to deal with Egypt (because that was the true allure of a Syrian governorship) when they both cover that opportunity for themselves? Caesar isn't getting syria.
 
How? And why is it a proconsular province at this time? And why are pompey and crassus giving Caesar a free hand to deal with Egypt (because that was the true allure of a Syrian governorship) when they both cover that opportunity for themselves? Caesar isn't getting syria.
Syria wasn't procounsular in 59 bc? Then what was it? Also Caesar can only get Gaul and illyricum? No other choice?
 
Syria wasn't procounsular in 59 bc? Then what was it? Also Caesar can only get Gaul and illyricum? No other choice?
A province being pro-consular depends on what's going on. In 59 BCE, the province of Syria was given to Gnaeus Cornelius Lentulus Marcellinus, who would not become consul until 56. Then he was followed by Gabinius who was a consul, but Gabinius of course was Pompey's man through and through and there was trouble in Egypt that needed sorting. Pompey made sure his man got the job.

Caesar wasn't Pompey's man and he wasn't Crassus's man. He was his own man, even in 59, and Crassus and Pompey aren't letting him get Syria over them/their allies.
 
A province being pro-consular depends on what's going on. In 59 BCE, the province of Syria was given to Gnaeus Cornelius Lentulus Marcellinus, who would not become consul until 56. Then he was followed by Gabinius who was a consul, but Gabinius of course was Pompey's man through and through and there was trouble in Egypt that needed sorting. Pompey made sure his man got the job.

Caesar wasn't Pompey's man and he wasn't Crassus's man. He was his own man, even in 59, and Crassus and Pompey aren't letting him get Syria over them/their allies.
So there's literally no chance for Caesar to get Syria? Well there goes my what if
 
Top