By 1492, was the forced conversion and expulsion of all Muslims in Spain a foregone conclusion?

By 1492, was Iberian Islam doomed?

  • Yes

    Votes: 21 91.3%
  • No

    Votes: 2 8.7%

  • Total voters
    23
unless someone clapped their hands and unified the Berbers from Northwestern Africa I'd say that curtains would be certain ... And that it would probably only be a question of time before it happened (unless again, Northwestern Africa unifies) by 1248 when Castile conquered Seville, unless you start wanking Granada (and screwing with Castile beyond what they got screwed with)
 
Yes, it was. Spain had formed by warring, for centuries, against Islamic powers and such a bias can't be so easily removed. On paper, a long string of capable balanced Emperors could eventually allow Islam in the wider Spanish culture; but it's extremely unlikely that it can all come to pass.

As the above user said, by 1248 the deal was to an extent already sealed - with the Christian kingdoms having all but won the fight.
 
from ~1248 (or well shortly afterwards when they had taken a breather) to 1492 Granada as a Muslim entity only survived because Castile couldn't be arsed to conquer them, partially because there was stuff happening that were more immediately important (revolts, Succession wars, etcetera) ... As soon as Castile get around having the time/will to eat Granada (optionally over a couple of times) they can pretty much just roll them over without a ton of effort
 
No a long term policy of coexistence was never a possibility, at least not for the Muslims, the Expulsion of the Jews on the other hand wasn't given.
 

aenigma

Banned
No a long term policy of coexistence was never a possibility, at least not for the Muslims, the Expulsion of the Jews on the other hand wasn't given.

that makes me wonder
could they have united iberia a few century earlier in that case if things go better for them ?
and would those 200years make any difference for north africa both in potential to be conquered and re-converted
 
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