British uses the Muslim population as a ruling elite in the Raj

As part of divide and conquer, could Britain op to near exclusively allow only the Muslim population to participate in the Indian colonial government.

What would be the impact on the British Raj

What would be the impact on Hindu- Muslim relations

What would be the impact on Indian independence
 
Last edited:
The Raj was not a unified entity. The Princely States and the direct rule areas differed in administrative structure and objectives. Modern India is a reflection of that legacy in many ways.

So if you have only Muslim administrators in areas where there really aren't Muslims, that just isn't going to be feasible.

Now, a preference for Muslims where it is feasible? That could work.
 
Can’t you just exclude the princely states

Couldn’t you just bring them in from Muslim majority areas
I suppose so, on both counts. It could be done, and certainly its not as if the Princely states are going to be going about this themselves, but the question has to be why. The idea of colonial divide and rule ethnic favoritism was much more of an African phenomenon than something practiced in Asia or Latin America, so this would be a new experience. The population of direct rule regions of the Raj was absolutely massive, so it is not as if there are a shortage of Muslims. The issue comes in the form of the question of why Muslims would be used to administer, say, rural areas of the Madras Presidency.

It was the case that the use of British administrators, particularly after the 1858 revolt, was a salve on ethnic tensions because, while not in any way unbiased, their forms of bias were different and didn't step on the wedge of Hindu/Islam which was so utterly explosive. Perhaps more important was the institution of the army.

The model of divide and rule on the basis of ethnic differences was much more applicable in smaller population groups with a lower level of political, social, and economic development. This did not significantly apply to India. There was no need to impose caste systems based on ethno-religious differences on the population to facilitate rule: India already came equipped with a literal caste system. The wealth of the Muslim areas of India and the Hindu areas of India were not really all that different at a major level.
 
Last edited:
Numerous princely states were Hindu. Ruling elites in places like Maharashtra were pretty much entirely Hindu. The bulk of the early reform movement, with the likes of Ram Mohan Roy, was Hindu. Making Muslims the new elite would require upending preexisting elites.

This policy would be noted, it would be seen as mistreatment, and it would cause rebellion.
 
Last edited:
As part of divide and conquer, could Britain op to near exclusively allow only the Muslim population to participate in the Indian colonial government.

What would be the impact on the British Raj

What would be the impact on Hindu- Muslim relations

What would be the impact on Indian independence
Nope. The British were pretty straightforward with the fact that their policy of divide and rule would benefit upper classes of both groups and hurt the poor of both groups. The British did this with the Muslim League, by creating a group solely for the Muslim aristocracy, and did similar things with Hindus. The Hindu elite was rather large at the time and would not allow the British to do such stuff, neither would the British try to polarise them.
 

longsword14

Banned
British authorities did not have a preference for supporting elites of only one religion. The BEIC often allowed Muslim landowners to continue as tax collectors.
As an example, parts of the North Indian plains were ruled by a Muslim elite with British approval, until 1857, when their rebellion got them squashed.
 
Top