British language WI

Teejay

Gone Fishin'
During the Roman occupation of Britain, the population becomes much more Romanised than in OTL to the extent that at least in the province of Britannia about the time the Roman forces leave British Vulgar Latin is the predominant language of the province.

Brythonic in the following centuries becomes an extinct, this process would be likely-hood in this TL Irish colonies in what is now Wales and Cornwall in the fifth century CE are much stronger and become Gaelic speaking. Not to mention the Irish colonies establishing themselves into lasting Gaelic kingdoms. Also instead of OTL Britanny becoming Brythonic speaking during the 5th century CE, it could be quite likely that Irish kingdoms of established instead and Gaelic becoming the main language spoken in Western Armorica

Also that during the Anglo-Saxon migrations, instead of Old English replacing Brythonic and probably Vulgar Latin in Britannia. The incoming Anglo-Saxons adopt British vulgar Latin instead, which happened to the Franks in Gaul. Although this British language would get a large number of Anglo-Frisian loanwords Also if the Norse conqueror the whole or a lot of Britannia, they would introduce Norse loanwords into the British language as well.

So the language map in this TL, would have British Romance being spoken where Old English was during the second half of the 1st millennium BCE and Gaelic being spoken in OTL Cornwall, Wales and Britanny.

I would imagine that this British Romance language would be closest to the Languages d'oïl of what is now Northern France. Since both had an influence from both P-Celtic (Gaulish and Brythonic) and Germanic (Frankish and Anglo-Frisian) languages. Also it might be closer to the Norman language if it gets influenced by Old Norse.

Back to the TL, after Roman rule collapses the Anglo-Saxons conqueror Britannia and established various kingdoms. However Romano-British culture survives and the Anglo-Saxons assimilate into it. Along with them converting in time to Christianity
 
Since English is the bastard child of Saxon German / Norman French and Latin the only cange I can see is that we have more latin and less german under this proposal.

It may well be that more people learn to read and write Latin (and become priests / monks) because the languages are more alike?
 
It may well be that more people learn to read and write Latin (and become priests / monks) because the languages are more alike?
Interestingly, during the Early Middle Ages, Britain was known for its religious scholars—they spoke better Latin rather than those from Romance-language speaking kingdoms, as they spoke a purer form of Latin, rather than one influenced by the local dialect.
 
I seem to recall reading about fragmentary inscriptions in a Latinate dialect in late antique Britain. Southeast Britain was probably quite Romanized, as it was ruled more directly rather than though tribal proxies, as was likely the case for Cornwall, Wales, and the North. Roman forts, colonial townships, and imperially integrated industry all contribute to that.
 
And I would expect that *British would be at least as different from the ille languages of North France as those are from the hoc and sic languages of the south. Probably be more of an outlier, like the Sardinian language.
 
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