Bourbons flee to the New World following Napoleons invasion of Spain. Names for a resulting Empire?

The Bourbons were still considered French by this time? This is a century after Philip V...
Not that they were French. Really, but they were considered so by the propaganda and all the societal players that were opposed to the Bourbon Reforms, as their reforms were "french" and "Anti-spanish", the opened of the Trade routes to French Merchants and sailors, in opposition to the Spanish Merchant Interest, the reformation of the Army for one professional force and not one dependent of "hidalgos" or low nobility, the weakness of the Spanish guilds, the decreases in the territory dedicated to sheep transhumance, The Jesuit expulsion (a clear attack to an obvious Spanish religious Institution)


Now don´t quote me bad, I consider a lot of these reforms necessary, but they were unpopular
 

Lusitania

Donor
Why would the Spanish king and the Spanish Corte go to “new Spain” and become king of of new country. No they would do the same as the Portuguese did.

If the premise of this thread is they pull a Portuguese move and in doing so they would deny Napoleon the ability to put his brother on the Spanish throne then the name can only be kingdom of Spain.

Now they could also do the same as Portuguese and include the viceroys equal parts of the country. In 1807 the kingdom of Portugal became the kingdom of Portugal & Brazil. So the Spanish could do same but to take on a makebelieve name or only a name of a part of the place they are living would of defeated the purpose of fleeing french invasion.

Had the Spanish king and Corte been able to pull a Portugal then Napoleon would of had to create new countries like he did in Italian Peninsula and Germanies. So we could of had kingdom of Castile and kingdom of Aragon on the Iberian Peninsula and kingdom of Spain in the new world fighting the French.
 
The Spanish king and court were going to flee to the Americas in the 1800s but a revolt at Aranjuez, where they were staying in route to fleeing, forced Carlos IV to abdicate in favor of Ferdinand VII who knixed the plans to flee.

But anyway, if they did flee and Napoleon took Iberia... he wouldn’t have to rename his portion something else. But if he did, he could have just created a Kingdom of Iberia under his brother and include Portugal.

Anyway, the name change is after a permanent split between the Empire in the New World and the Kingdom of Spain after the end of the Napoleonic Wars.

Of the Viceroyalties, only Peru kept its name the same anyway so it’s not like the OTL names of any of them would have to be kept for an Empire that included all of the Spanish Americas
 

Lusitania

Donor
The Spanish king and court were going to flee to the Americas in the 1800s but a revolt at Aranjuez, where they were staying in route to fleeing, forced Carlos IV to abdicate in favor of Ferdinand VII who knixed the plans to flee.

But anyway, if they did flee and Napoleon took Iberia... he wouldn’t have to rename his portion something else. But if he did, he could have just created a Kingdom of Iberia under his brother and include Portugal.

Anyway, the name change is after a permanent split between the Empire in the New World and the Kingdom of Spain after the end of the Napoleonic Wars.

Of the Viceroyalties, only Peru kept its name the same anyway so it’s not like the OTL names of any of them would have to be kept for an Empire that included all of the Spanish Americas

The issue was there was no precedent for Kingdom of Iberia and France's control or stay in Portugal was fleeting and short. When Napoleon captured Spain and he installed his brother as king of Spain they never claimed the Portuguese part of the Iberian Peninsula. I would think that France would continue to wish to control Portugal for itself. The King of Iberia like iotl only controlled those part of the country that were under direct control of French / Allied troops.
 
I think the King, either Charles, Francisco or a brain-swapped Ferdinand would need to grant the creoles not just economic freedoms but also some sort of political power - either some form of parliamentarian system, some way to elect the local viceroy/governor or something along those lines. The military situation if the king flees Spain and France occupies it is even more favorable to independentist movements than in OTL: not only no relief force is coming from the Iberian peninsula in the previsible future, even if Napoleon is defeated, the King in Mexico will first need to deal to whoever rules from Madrid. So, why bother taking orders from Mexico?
However, if the rich have a way to rule, or influence the rule, of the lands they live in, then the appeal of rebellion dwindles. Essentially, the King in Mexico will need to reform the Empire into a huge federal constitutional monarchy spanning three continents (there is still Phillipines and Equatorial Guinea) and with accounts to settle in the Iberian Peninsula once Napoleon is defeated.

If such a country survives the 19th century, it would be the largest country in the world and, eventually, the largest federal democracy in the world. It would inevitably come into conflict with that big neighbor up north.
 
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