Let's consider a hypothetical situation. Pick any time from the 1500s to the 1800s. it can be in an alternate history, but the English/British (depending on their point in time) must have the same land, interests, allies, internal politics, and monarch as OTL. For the rest of this, I'll use "British" for simplicity since that's what I used in the scenario that prompted this.
One country A orders a blockade on an area. The British ask Country A for economic concessions. Country A gives money and offers British access to Port X, which is inside the blockage zone.
Now, someone pointed out the British absolutely do not want to set up a precedent for blockade evasion because that would undermine their own future blockades. I agree with that. Now, he also provided a strong argument that this very scenario is evasion.
I don't think so if the blockading country gave legal permission, but I'm not sure.
So is it blockade evasion if the blockading faction is giving a specific country permission to use specific ports inside the blockade target?
One country A orders a blockade on an area. The British ask Country A for economic concessions. Country A gives money and offers British access to Port X, which is inside the blockage zone.
Now, someone pointed out the British absolutely do not want to set up a precedent for blockade evasion because that would undermine their own future blockades. I agree with that. Now, he also provided a strong argument that this very scenario is evasion.
I don't think so if the blockading country gave legal permission, but I'm not sure.
So is it blockade evasion if the blockading faction is giving a specific country permission to use specific ports inside the blockade target?