usertron2020
Donor
That's it. Ignoring politics, advancing Japanese conquest plans and naval construction, Indo-China is already fully occupied in July 1941 as it was IOTL in December of that year. Japan learns of Barbarossa and decides to throw the dice when FDR announces oil embargo with Japanese occupation of Indo-China.
This is not a fixed idea. Basically what I'm looking at is a simultaneous attack by Germany plus a Japan OTL under ATL conditions in terms of positions in Indo-China and the military forces they enjoyed in 12/41.
Also, the effects of the combined sense of "infamy" felt by both the USSR and the USA being attacked on the same day. Perhaps America followed by Russia, or vice-versa.
What happens? Is the US-USSR relationship changed in anyway? For the better? For the worse?
Opinions?
EDIT: Japan's attack is OTL save for timing, i.e., no invasion of Russia.
This is not a fixed idea. Basically what I'm looking at is a simultaneous attack by Germany plus a Japan OTL under ATL conditions in terms of positions in Indo-China and the military forces they enjoyed in 12/41.
Also, the effects of the combined sense of "infamy" felt by both the USSR and the USA being attacked on the same day. Perhaps America followed by Russia, or vice-versa.
What happens? Is the US-USSR relationship changed in anyway? For the better? For the worse?
Opinions?
EDIT: Japan's attack is OTL save for timing, i.e., no invasion of Russia.
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