NoMommsen
Donor
@Glenn239
What was it then, what Grey wanted to achive in your opinion ?
First the offer of the possibility of british as well as french neutrality communicated by Tyrell.
Second with the 'backflip' after the Kaiser agreed on not waging war in the west, if France does the same ?
Do you say Grey wanted to avoid war at all ?
The violation of was the only arguement he could get the cabinet to agree upon to be concerned for some action (not necessarily military action).
What was it then, what Grey wanted to achive in your opinion ?
First the offer of the possibility of british as well as french neutrality communicated by Tyrell.
Second with the 'backflip' after the Kaiser agreed on not waging war in the west, if France does the same ?
What was it in your opinion grey wanted to 'lure the germans too with his 'bait' ?So, when the French mobilize and the Germans ask for an actual guarantee of neutrality, Grey cuts bait.
Why should have he bothered, who mobilises first (what actually did the french, even though only by less than 2 hours) ?Here's the elephant in the room - the reason that Grey did this backflip, I'd bet, is that it bothered him France would mobilize first. Mobilization meant war.
Do you say Grey wanted to avoid war at all ?
Why and with what reasoning should have Britain do this ? ... if they are NOT at war with Germany ? ... especially after the german guarantee Belgium ?The British were setting up for a naval war at the minimum so it's quite possible they'd have simply taken into custody the German merchant ships trying to return to Germany from overseas. Not like after guaranteeing Belgium the Germans would be in any position to do anything about it, right?
The violation of was the only arguement he could get the cabinet to agree upon to be concerned for some action (not necessarily military action).