Before I begin , I am going to make the prediction that I will receive many Euro Centric replies to this query , but here goes anyway .
Why was it Europe that gained an advantage in Science , as well as eventual mastery over the world by the 19th century , rather than the other major civilisations of that time ?
Europe , at the end of the middle ages , was arguably much poorer , much less resource rich , much more primitive and much less populous than its counterpart , occupying the tail end of the Eurasian Landmass . Why was it Europe that underwent a rapid advancement in Science and technology , rather than the civilisations that laid the initial foundations allowing European Science to thrive ?
And , with a POD of 1200 , and without ASB measures like a Years of Rice And Salt plauge , what will be needed to ensure that the rest of the world does not stagnante , but rather capitalize on their initial lead on Europe instead of whittling away ?
Why was it Europe that gained an advantage in Science , as well as eventual mastery over the world by the 19th century , rather than the other major civilisations of that time ?
Europe , at the end of the middle ages , was arguably much poorer , much less resource rich , much more primitive and much less populous than its counterpart , occupying the tail end of the Eurasian Landmass . Why was it Europe that underwent a rapid advancement in Science and technology , rather than the civilisations that laid the initial foundations allowing European Science to thrive ?
And , with a POD of 1200 , and without ASB measures like a Years of Rice And Salt plauge , what will be needed to ensure that the rest of the world does not stagnante , but rather capitalize on their initial lead on Europe instead of whittling away ?