Interesting. So Alexander was more egalitarian than most of his Macedonian counterparts. Very interesting, adds a whole new dynamic to politics within a united Alexandrian empire.
Well, it's hard to say he was idealistically egalitarian. Sometimes he can be painted as such, but he was also ruthlessly pragmatic and so, could care less about supporting Greek supremacy if it made it harder to rule Persians and raise an army to conquer the world.
So, any specific reasons why some groups of Jews hellenized while others didn't? What stopped the Hellenization process IOTL?
Probably a host of them. Wealth was certainly a factor, but so too was the nature of Judaism at the time. The chronicles of the Old Testatment (Kings I and II and beyond) are full of parts of the Jewish people falling away from their faith. Josephus paints a picture of 1st century BC / AD Israel full of a vareity of different sects that all tooks different approaches to religion.
The Selecuids were usually pretty careful respecting toleration for the Jewish faith (until Antiochus IV), but it was the election of a High Priest named, IIRC, Hercules that really got the Maccabee's goat [the actual story of the revolt is way more complicated than the version where Antiochus passes a decree against the Jewish faith, but I can't recall it precisely without my sources at home.]
Furthermore, Hellenization was a crucial period for the development of Jewish idenity. By both spawning reaction and example, Hellenization helped to instil the sense of proper Jewish existence in a diaspora. If Greeks could still be Greek in Egypt, if being Greek were more a product of learned and practiced culture, than so too could Jews be Jews outside of Israel/Palestine and Jewish be as much knowledge based as practice based. In many ways, this marks the beginning of the evolution that led from Temple Judaism, with priests and sacrifice, to Rabbinic Juddaism (it did take 600 - 700 years), spawning Christianity along the way.
So you're saying that Alexander wouldn't have contained himself to just the cities, and would have done a tour de force as it were on the entire Arabian coastline?
No, the coastline would be sufficient for his purposes, if I'm right about him wanting to conquer so as to secure the rest of his conquests, campaigning in an orbit around and through the Empire, rather than an endless plunge in one direction.
It would be a very unwise decision on his part. Alexander was for all intents and purposes crazy, but I'm not sure even he would see the point in marching across the sand, in an area with the population density at this time of about 1 to every, what, 100 square miles?
Quite so. Given his adaptablity in other places and his strategic decisions to avoid some strongholds he could not beseige, I think concentrating on nominal conquest and flagshowing is best. He could probably get away with a few battles and being recognized as overlord.
That's a good point, although this is a man who was apparently spoiling to march to the mouth of the Ganges. Perhaps most of his conquests were motivated by the desire to reach the end of the world?
No doubt they were and no doubt Alexander was completely impulsive about it. IMO though he was also enough of a strategist to recognize that there was more than one direction in which to conquer. Perhaps the question is whether Alexander gets it into his head that he should not only conquer but explore: his return from India bears something of this notion, crossing modern Iran with his army on the shore and a supply train of ships close by, almost simply because it hadn't been done before.
Thanks! And can you speak to the Indian subcontinent? One of the major differences between the two maps was that in one there are three Indian kingdoms on one map that are not present on the other.
I beleive the first (the one without the purple) simple refers to "Dravidian Kingdoms" whereas the later actual names some of them. Even these names probably doesn't account for all the independent city-states and small principalities. From what research I've done on India at the time, identifying set states is sort of like mapping the HRE...except Indian conceptions of sovereignty, ownerships, and borders are different than European ones. My main preference in India was that the first map's borders for the Nanda Empire looked a bit too big to me, but I could be very wrong.
Interesting observation. But wouldn't seizing the Greeks' primary source of grain stir up an awful lot of trouble among them? Or do you think it would make the Greeks behave better? (As in, if they act up, Alexander with a word could stop grain shipments to Athens et al.)
Actually, I tend to think the Greeks might like the idea. Unlike Persia, which seems to have been well settled and with a set system of land tenure, this land was inhabitated by a mix of settled and tribal peoples. The great thing about tribal peoples is that they are easier to displace and colonize than settled ones. Furtermore, it could probably let Alexander hand out more land to Macedonians themselves, to ease tensions. While some of the Greeks might realize the potential stranglehold Alexander would have if he possessed all that farmland, Alexander can beat them and with that land in his possesion he's in control of 2/3 of the major Mediterranean graneries (in the 4th century), Egypt and the Black Sea (with Sicily being the other). Plus I'd figure on Alexander having to sort out the Greek states at some point, they're just looking for a reason to revolt (that and Demosthenes isn't dead yet, IIRC).
Furthermore, after the conquests I list, Sicily is actually the next big question. It's the biggest population of Greeks that Alexander doesn't rule and could become involved in a Greek uprising (though not likely considering that most of Sicily is under the rule of Dionysian Tyrants). These Greeks, though, will be fighting the Carthaginians about this time. They may also seek alliances with their compatriots in Southern Italy.