Let's say Ferdinand the Catholic manages to sire a surviving son with Germaine de Foix and prevent the unification of Iberia. The other ramifications of this aside, I'm just curious as to how absolutism would fully develop in Aragon after his death, assuming such a thing is possible?
By Aragon, of course, I mean the entire collection of kingdoms in personal union, including Valencia, Catalonia and the Sicilies. I know that the Trastamaras had made great strides in the fifteenth century, and that Ferdinand himself was able to push through some administrative reforms. However, without the pool of soldiers and taxes to draw from in Castile, how exactly would things fare in Aragon? Would the Catholic King's successors be able to establish absolutism there? Or, would the kings end up just doing the same thing as Alfonso V and withdrawing to the wealthier and more easily manageable Naples, and ruling as absentee monarchs?
Just curious.
By Aragon, of course, I mean the entire collection of kingdoms in personal union, including Valencia, Catalonia and the Sicilies. I know that the Trastamaras had made great strides in the fifteenth century, and that Ferdinand himself was able to push through some administrative reforms. However, without the pool of soldiers and taxes to draw from in Castile, how exactly would things fare in Aragon? Would the Catholic King's successors be able to establish absolutism there? Or, would the kings end up just doing the same thing as Alfonso V and withdrawing to the wealthier and more easily manageable Naples, and ruling as absentee monarchs?
Just curious.