Arab-Perisan Pidgin?

Pesigalam

Banned
So on occasion on the border between 2 linguistic groups a pidgin language arises that mixes elements between the 2 languages to facilitate communication. Examples include Spanglish*, Kyakhta Russian–Chinese Pidgin, Russenorsk, etc.

My question is twofold:

1) Was there ever a language combing elements of Arab and Persian two facilitate communication between Arab and Persian speakers?
2) If the answer to the above is "no", than why?

* - though wiki tells me Spanglish isn't actually classified as a pidgin language.
 
This is an interesting question to be sure and I noticed it earlier, however I am only now free to respond. Haha

The closest thing to an Arabic-Farsi pidgin would be Khuzestani Arabic, however it is definitely not a pidgin. However it has absorbed significant amounts of Farsi influence, making it very different than MSA or Gulf, Najdi or Mesopotamian Arabic. It is not taught in schools at all not seen on tv in Iran, so it is difficult to get solid information on, without experience.

However, the question of why isn't there, is very interesting. While I have not intensely studied this topic, I know, that the only Arabic pidgins are located in Africa outside the periphery of the Abbasid caliphate and in general outside the heart of Dar al-Islam. By this, I am implying that it was due to not being inside the rule of Sharia and such that Arabic remained so distant from native languages, because Arabic in classical times was seen as sacred and a language above languages, its "pristine" nature was kept intact by the Ulema throughout history. As well, Persian identity was extremely active during the days of the caliphate and afterwards as secessionist feelings were high. This can be seen in the Safavids which instituted Persian identity including Shia Islam solidifying the loyalty of the Iranian plateau and further pushing it from the Arab world.

With all that said, I would say that it was the institution of Arabic by states all across the Arabo-Islamic on subjects who were originally in most cases Semitic speakers, which speed up it's adoption rate. The speed for adoption from Indo-Euro is and would be much slower, thus unlike Iraq or Syria, Iran needed an extended period of time like in say Egypt for the general population to cross language families. As well, Persian subjects rejected first with a different religion, then they resisted based on cultural separatism and eventually it was ruled by Turkish rulers who did not institute Arabic and neither did the Mongols. This period I feel is very important as it spent at least 400 years ruled by non Arabic speaking rulers, and in which the Persian identity was strengthened. All of this, then culminated in the Safavid Empire.

I would say, that the way to get this to happen would be to have an Arab dynasty to rule Iran for an extended period of time like Egypt, and most likely if such a state existed could last in relative secession of dynasties from say 900s AD to around 1500s, an Arabic-Farsi Pigdin is very possible and most likely plausible.
 
Isn´t modern Persian itself a kind of pidgin language, a bit like modern English? As far as I understand, modern Persian and modern English both have a very simplified grammar compared to middle Persian and Anglosaxon. They also are strongly influenced by another language (Arab vs. Norman French).
 
Persian is now pretty arabised. There is much Arabic loan words, Arabic names, and even almost identic writing systems. I don't think that you could get any closer.
 
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