1. restoring the absolute monarchy
2. Gaining territorial concessions for coalition members
3. Both
4. Neither
2. Gaining territorial concessions for coalition members
3. Both
4. Neither
The British may have been partly motivated by the possibility of gaining new colonies, or not. But given how the continental powers didn't claim an inch of France's pre-revolutionary territory even after it's unconditional surrender after decades of war, I'm doubtful territorial gain was on their agenda.
Hmm. It puzzles me that they became less ambitious, you'd think they'd be more vengeful and desirous of compensation as the years dragged on and the humiliations built up. Guess not.Maybe after 20-years, but according to Nagel's biography on Madame Royal, after her release from the Temple, both Spain and Austria wanted her to wife. Spain for the future Fernando VII in the hopes of gaining back parts of Navarre and the HRE for the duke of Teschen with the intention of claiming the duchy of Lorraine from France. So, I think they both intended to be opportunistic in that regard - possibly why Louis XVIII wanted her to marry his nephew...
Span was in no fit state to ask for anything post settlement. Plus no one actually seemed to want a weakened France any more, plus Louis XVIII would also need some legitimacy. France had lost all of its problematic possessions in Italy and its client states too. Pushing harder seemed counter productive after such a long war.Hmm. It puzzles me that they became less ambitious, you'd think they'd be more vengeful and desirous of compensation as the years dragged on and the humiliations built up. Guess not.
Yes, over 100 years before they had a regicide and a failed republic, but that's no motivation for a limited monarchy and a parliament that knows King George to be increasingly unstable,to care about a republic being in France. It was all about a balance of power.