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Okay, so I'm trying to figure something out here.
Henry VIII divorced and then beheaded Ms Boleyn. The divorce/annulment also declared a certain redheaded queen a bastard, and removed her from the line of succession. And yet, the Habsburgs, who of all people, one would expect to be the first to shout bastard, proposed several marriages between various infantes/archdukes for her (HRE Ferdinand I apparently made overtures to marry her after his wife's death).

Now for my question/situation:
Jan.1536 - Anne Boleyn DOESN'T miscarry her child (apparently a son, but no contemporary writer AFAIK actually mentions sex, with the French ambassador mentioning simply that it was a good/beautiful child). This buys her a bit more time.

The child is either stillborn, a girl or a short-lived boy (New Years' boy kind of duke of Cornwall). The only change is that Anne survives a bit longer than OTL, unless she gets knocked up again soon with a son, I think her days are still numbered.

But, the opponents of Anne can't sidestep her anymore, even Chapuys had acknowledged her in the chapel at Greenwich over Easter (indicating that the Habsburgs were coming around to Anne being a fixture to my mind). Would her survival in this scenario mean that fewer people are willing to contest Henry and Anne's marriage as being valid? Or would it require a second (nonbigamous) ceremony in order to legitimize any offspring? Or does Anne simply become legitimate queen because one can't sidestep the issue any more (basically, she becomes bona fide consort by right of survivorship)?
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