Technically, if you really want to be pedantic, you can't use Bombay for Mumbai any more. It used to be a cultural thing, but a decade ago the local government there definitively renamed the city as "Mumbai", and it is thus called now even in the Anglosphere. Similarly Burma/Myanmar.
Most Burmese who oppose the Junta call it Burma.
Nek started a TL about it sometime ago: Reign of the Griffin: An Anglo-Prussian Union.
Basically George II has no issue, and so the succession goes to Sophia Dorothea of Hannover, who was married to Frederick William I of Prussia.
well an Anglo prussian union can happen a few times
first, if George I's wife dies in child birth, he don't remarry, the Crown goes to Frederick William I of Prussia by way of his sister Sophia Charlotte,
second, George II dies, his sister Sophia Dorothea is the queen of Prussia, her heir is Frederick the Great
and the last one i can think of, is this king Edward VII has no kids (to much sex with other women maybe, or the drinking, or being over weight what ever) Alfred's kids are unacceptable as Queen, Prince Leopold, kicks it a year early no kids from him, and kill Prince Arthur, that leaves the Crown to Wilhelm II, German Emperor,by way of Victoria.
the Victoria one is my favorite, it's not that hard to do,
Most Burmese who oppose the Junta call it Burma.
How does that work? In the first scenario, George I's wife dies in childbirth but George II is still there. If George II dies (say before he becomes king) or has no issue then what exactly happens when his father dies? Does Sophia Dorothea become queen of England or does the crown go to her husband, Frederick Wilhelm? And is Hanover included in the Union? Anyway, however these scenarios happen, Frederick the Great still ends up king of Prussia and England.
And are England and Prussia (& possibly Hanover) automatically united into one country or does there need to be some Act of Union passed?
How does that work? In the first scenario, George I's wife dies in childbirth but George II is still there. If George II dies (say before he becomes king) or has no issue then what exactly happens when his father dies? Does Sophia Dorothea become queen of England or does the crown go to her husband, Frederick Wilhelm? And is Hanover included in the Union? Anyway, however these scenarios happen, Frederick the Great still ends up king of Prussia and England.
And are England and Prussia (& possibly Hanover) automatically united into one country or does there need to be some Act of Union passed?
um NO!!!!! Prince Frederick and King George III are 2 different people, King George was Prince Frederick's son, Frederick died before his father of a cold in 1751.What happens if George II's mother dies after he is born and he dies before he inherits the throne? - George II had all of his children before he took the throne, so it depends when he dies. If he dies post 1707 then he's already had a son, the man who would go on to be George III, being Prince Frederick. Aside from butterflies affecting marriages etc, this doesn't really change the succession. If he dies before 1707 then he's had no children, so the inheritance would pass to his sister, Sophia Dorothea, Queen of Prussia.
as far as i know inheritance can't go through a woman, meaning that a new elector would need to be picked by the Holy Roman Emperor, here's why, the first elector was George I he had a son and a daughter, if the son has no heirs then it goes to George I's siblings, but he only has a sister, then on to his father's (Ernest Augustus) siblings (his father is fair game because he was Elector-designate) however his 3 brothers one had no children the others had only girls, so i guess that leaves that Holy Roman Emperor to pickIs Hanover included in the Union? - No. Hanover follows Salic Law and IIRC in Germany this means that the inheritance can't pass through a female, even to her children. Certainly in France that's the case. At any rate, with Sophia the legal claimant and not her husband, Hanover won't pass to the Prussian royals and takes its own Elector. This makes the Elector of Hanover Ernest, Duke of York and Albany. With his lack of an heir, if inheritance can pass through female blood (without actually resting on a woman) this actually makes Frederick William of Prussia his legal heir since his mother is next in line after his wife, ironically. Otherwise it gets considerably more confusing. Going back another two generations or so, you'll end up with Ernest's heir being some obscure minor noble who's name I don't believe is even recorded anymore. Judging by the distant heir and the reported looseness of interpretation of Salic Law in Germany, chances are it would be claimed by the Prussians anyway, so maybe it's a moot point save for Ernest being the legal claimant for one year.
as far as i know inheritance can't go through a woman, meaning that a new elector would need to be picked by the Holy Roman Emperor, here's why, the first elector was George I he had a son and a daughter, if the son has no heirs then it goes to George I's siblings, but he only has a sister, then on to his father's (Ernest Augustus) siblings (his father is fair game because he was Elector-designate) however his 3 brothers one had no children the others had only girls, so i guess that leaves that Holy Roman Emperor to pick
ok i take it back if the HRE feels like it the heir as far i could find was Augustus William, Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg