Anglo-German Alliance of 1899

The Mediterranean Agreements with Austria and Italy already aligned Britain indirectly with Germany and the Triple Alliance. In 1899, Joseph Chamberlain's offer of an alliance with Germany was refused. What if Berlin would have accepted Chamberlain's offer?
 
The alliance would have been unstable, not only because of Wilhelm II, but also due to conflicting economic interests between Britain and Germany.
It would have isolated and antagonised France.
Increased French commitment in the Balkans?
If, however, an integration even into switching alliances would have prevented Germany`s isolation, then the World War I would, if it occurs, certainly not occur as IOTL. If Serbia only had French and Russian protection, it´s doubtful whether Austria-Hungary`s violation of Serbian independence would really drag France and Russia into a war they cannot win. (OTOH, it did drag Germany and Austria-Hungary into one they could not win IOTL. Hm.)
 
I suspect the alliance would not have been particularly long-lived, since such an agreement would not serve any of the party's interests. For Britain such a pact would surely bring a closer alignment of France and Russia, and in doing so jeopardize the UK's extensive overseas Empire; for Germany this guarantees a two-front war (and one that might not even be fought for Germany's interests), the brunt of which will likely fall on it.

Alliances during the pre-WWI were far from being the cast-iron agreements that people like to treat them as. OTL even France and Russia were deathly afraid of each other abandoning commitments at the last moment, and worked out multiple escalation scenarios through which they could be assured of the other's support - a war between A-H and Serbia being one of them.

If Serbia only had French and Russian protection, it´s doubtful whether Austria-Hungary`s violation of Serbian independence would really drag France and Russia into a war they cannot win.

Serbia did only have French and Russian protection - the anti-war Liberals already came close enough to blocking British intervention over Belgium; the UK certainly would not have joined in for the defense of Serbian interests. But the point was that Serbia played a key role in the 'trigger-mechanism' of the Franco-Russian alliance, with President Poincare assuring the Russians of French help in the event of a war over Serbia.
 
If such an Alliance came about, could it have influence on GERMANY and its policies in the 15 years after its signing?
 
I would be curious to the relationship between the two royal families.

My understanding is that Wilhelm could practically do no wrong in Victoria's eyes. But that Edward and George V hated him. Hence the close relationship between George and Nicholas II of Russia.

Would there be much of a difference?
 
Actually George V was one of the few members of the British Royal Family to have an okay relationship with his cousin.
Edward VII's relationship with his nephew was poor - in part due to Edward's affection for his eldest sister (and her poor relationship with her son Wilhelm II), and also because of his nephews general character and politics - the situation was not helped by the fact it was well-known that Alexandra (Edward's wife) was fiercely anti-Prussian - which as Victoria noted caused family issues!

Edward and George had little political influence though - and George in particular was very careful of avoiding the political sphere - Edward did believe though in having the right to exercise his influence particularly in diplomatic terms - he certainly helped in creating the Anglo French entente in part due to his personal popularity in France (at a time when Britain's international reputation was poor - given the fact that most of Europe had been appalled at Britain's actions in the Boer war)

George V's closeness to Nicholas II is sometime over sold but Nicholas and his wife both disliked Wilhelm and again part of that was his own mother's anti Prussian views.





I would be curious to the relationship between the two royal families.

My understanding is that Wilhelm could practically do no wrong in Victoria's eyes. But that Edward and George V hated him. Hence the close relationship between George and Nicholas II of Russia.

Would there be much of a difference?
 
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