I believe you can't be a Catholic.
If Mary and Francis somehow had a son, would he inherit all three kingdoms or were there some law that prevented a King of France to inherit the English crown?
It wasn't really a removal: more like putting his sister Mary's bloodline before that of his sister Margaret. In other words, Mary Stuart would still be in the English line of succession but she would be relegated behind Catherine Grey and her children.The Professor said:There'd be pressure to confirm Henry VIII's removal of his sister's line from the succession.
It would depend on circumstances though. Also, wouldn't parliament have a word on this? Or was the parliament not strong enough at the time?The Professor said:Elizabeth may forgive Edward Seymour's marriage to Catherine Grey (even if retroactively) and allow them to be in line.
Plus, let's not forget that Mary and Elizabeth were more or less rivals: as such, it's highly unlikely Elizabeth would want Mary's son to be her successor. She did OTL, but Mary was long dead and James VI hadn't been raised by his mother.
I think it would work better if the kid of Francis and Mary, let's call him 'Hercule' for now, didn't become the King of England and Scotland, but rather Elizabeth and Mary both lived long enough for Hercule to have two children of his own and give the English/Scottish Crowns to the younger son, while letting the elder be his heir to the French throne.
I think it would work better if the kid of Francis and Mary, let's call him 'Hercule' for now, didn't become the King of England and Scotland, but rather Elizabeth and Mary both lived long enough for Hercule to have two children of his own and give the English/Scottish Crowns to the younger son, while letting the elder be his heir to the French throne.
Thing is the XVIth-XVIIth Century weren't times of Tolerance. In most European countries, States were being built to become confessionnal by following the principle cuius regio, ejus religio (One King, One Faith).GdwnsnHo said:I won't disagree that the religious issues are going to be .... troublesome without someone able to steer the realm(s) to peace. (Perhaps allow 3 faiths in 3 kingdoms with the ruler respecting each?).
Mary dead would change little in that scenario: her son would be raised in the French court. With Catherine de Medici being his grandmother, he might have chances of becoming more politically pragmatic but he would most likely be raised a Catholic, which is the biggest issue. And the Guise being his cousins, given the reputation they had as arch-catholics, wouldn't necessarilly help his image in England. And if I recall correctly, Marie de Guise (Mary Stuart's mother) wasn't a popular figure in Scotland, so that would most likely cause trouble as well.GdwnsnHo said:But, what is Mary dies in childbirth or shortly after? I suppose it would depend on who the next bride was, but it would certainly help with distancing alt-James from Mary.
Hercule doesn't sound like a likely name for that son, or at least not the name he would be christened as: the only French prince named Hercule I know was the Duke of Alençon, younger brother of Henri III, and he was christened as François in the end. Besides, Henri seems like a much more plausible choice in this scenario: it is the name of Francis II's father (Henri II), it would put emphasis on Mary's will to get the English crown (Eight Henrys had ruled England by that point) and it appears to be popular in the Stuart family at the time (Mary's second husband OTL was her cousin Henry Stuart, Lord Darnley).Shiva said:I think it would work better if the kid of Francis and Mary, let's call him 'Hercule' for now, didn't become the King of England and Scotland, but rather Elizabeth and Mary both lived long enough for Hercule to have two children of his own and give the English/Scottish Crowns to the younger son, while letting the elder be his heir to the French throne.
AFAIK that was only added much later, after the Glorious Revolution (aka Dutch conquest of Britain).
France was the only country that didn't follow that rule but it came at the price of the Religious Wars because it wasn't a popular idea at the beginning: you had to wait the reign of Henri IV before the Edict of Nantes was proclaimed after all. And even then, the Edict barely stabilized the situation because the Protestants were a bit too powerful: which is why Richelieu worked his way to eventually reduce the Protestant's power by 1629 (taking away the fortress they had thanks to the Edict of Nantes). But in the end, the edict was abolished by Louis XIV in 1685, which effectively ended the French exception on the continent.
Didn't know about that part.fhaessig said:Not quite.
Edit of Fontainebleau (i.e. the revocation of the edit of Nantes) didn't apply to Alsace and when Louis XIV occupied Strasbourg, he only imposed that the cathedrale be given back to catholics and half the city officials be catholics but otherwise left protestants alone. He even paid for a tomb to be built and maintained in a protestant church for one of his favorite marshalls (Maurice of Saxe), who was protestant.
That's why one of the two main concentration of protestants in France nowadays is in Alsace (as well as one of the two university of protestant theology).
AFAIK that was only added much later, after the Glorious Revolution (aka Dutch conquest of Britain).
Thing is the XVIth-XVIIth Century weren't times of Tolerance. In most European countries, States were being built to become confessionnal by following the principle cuius regio, ejus religio (One King, One Faith).
France was the only country that didn't follow that rule but it came at the price of the Religious Wars because it wasn't a popular idea at the beginning: you had to wait the reign of Henri IV before the Edict of Nantes was proclaimed after all. And even then, the Edict barely stabilized the situation because the Protestants were a bit too powerful: which is why Richelieu worked his way to eventually reduce the Protestant's power by 1629 (taking away the fortress they had thanks to the Edict of Nantes). But in the end, the edict was abolished by Louis XIV in 1685, which effectively ended the French exception on the continent.
Didn't know about that part.
Still, Alsace doesn't represent the whole of France. It might be more of an exception to the rule.
Wasn't the 'No Catholics' thing first in the 1701 Act of Settlement?
The Great Schism had ended around one century before the Reformation appeared so there is no Avignon Papacy to ask to be more lax...GdwnsnHo said:I'll accept your point, but it is helped by the OTL unpopularity of One King, One Faith. I don't believe that a King wouldn't try if they had three realms of three different faiths to circumvent the idea entirely. I don't know how much sway over Avigonon France would still have (or if there could be a Pope there at this point), but if the King can 'persuade' (i.e. inconspicuously threaten) that Pope to be more lax, then there is a chance.
The Great Schism had ended around one century before the Reformation appeared so there is no Avignon Papacy to ask to be more lax...
As for saying that a King could try "Thee Faiths in Three Realms"... It is a possibility indeed but I fear both Catholics and Protestants were quite radical at taking each other's blood at the time. The result is more likely to end up as expanding the French Religious Wars to the British Isles... And from my POV, it's more likely to lead to a break up of the possible Anglo-Scot-French Kingdom than it is of keeping it united.