If Great Britain had not secured India in the 1759-1818 timeframe for whatever reason (crushing defeat at Plassy, the French militarily not expelled from India after 7 Years War leaving Britain to take out the India states one by one without European intervention, whatever), how would this affect Britain's (and to a lesser extent, the rest of the European Powers) attempt to force open China's markets?
Would the weakened British Empire fight harder or would the defeat in India force them to change tactics to a more conciliatory negotiating style?
Would Britain even attempt strongarm tactics (the Opium War)after losing the Americas and failing to overrun India?
Would "colonialism" be a dead idea by this point (Britain, France and Spain having lost most of their empires by OTL Opium War)?
COULD Britain (without a forward base of India and the associated wealth) even attempt to force the issue?
Thanks.
Would the weakened British Empire fight harder or would the defeat in India force them to change tactics to a more conciliatory negotiating style?
Would Britain even attempt strongarm tactics (the Opium War)after losing the Americas and failing to overrun India?
Would "colonialism" be a dead idea by this point (Britain, France and Spain having lost most of their empires by OTL Opium War)?
COULD Britain (without a forward base of India and the associated wealth) even attempt to force the issue?
Thanks.