An Entirely Mizrahim *Israel?

Is it possible for a Jewish State to be formed roughly where it is IOTL, but consists entirely of Jews from the Middle East, in a process initiated and shaped by the Mizrahim, independent from the events in Europe?

It could either be affected by the good will or bad will from their Arab neighbors.
 
Is it possible for a Jewish State to be formed roughly where it is IOTL, but consists entirely of Jews from the Middle East, in a process initiated and shaped by the Mizrahim, independent from the events in Europe?

It could either be affected by the good will or bad will from their Arab neighbors.

I once made this list, which dabbled with the idea of two Jewish states after WW2. OTL Israel is mostly Sephardic/Mizrahim, with the only Ashkenasi Jews being the ones who already came in the 19th and 20th century to set up kibbuzes. Another Jewish state is formed with the help of the Soviet Union in the OTL Eastern bloc. This is based on the idea that, while Germany was responsible for the extinction of the European Jews, a Jewish national home has to be founded within the former German border. My idea was Königsberg/Kaliningrad, as it had a large Jewish community before Hitler seized power. This new state becomes part of the Eastern bloc and is dominated by secular Jews.

Another POD: the USA passes no immigration laws, meaning that European Jews continue to go to the USA to flee from European antisemitism. Europe is dominated by right-wing authoritarian regimes, including Germany (no National Socialism, but a more traditional authoritarian regime). Fascist ideas spread to the Middle East, though, and become an influence to Pan-Arabism. Therefore, many Mizrahi Jews migrate from Muslim countries to Erez Israel.
 
You would actually needed an earlier PoD where most Yemenite Jews decided to remain in present-day Israel (particularly in Bersheba) after their explusion from Yemen in the 17th or 18th century.
 
Is it possible for a Jewish State to be formed roughly where it is IOTL, but consists entirely of Jews from the Middle East, in a process initiated and shaped by the Mizrahim, independent from the events in Europe?

It could either be affected by the good will or bad will from their Arab neighbors.

Short answer: No.

Long answer: It was the Ashkenazim that had the Zionist ideology, the money and the connexions to move millions of people to the area. The Mizrahim had none of that. Besides, if they were reasonably comfortable where they were, why would they move from one point in the Ottoman empire, where they had a living, to another, where they wouldn't?

Could you get a few Mizrahim communities in an ethic Arab Palestine? Sure. Could you get a Mizrahi Israel? I certainly don't see any way with a post 1900 PoD. Or even a pre1900 one, but I'm sure that such COULD exist.
 
Short answer: No.

Long answer: It was the Ashkenazim that had the Zionist ideology, the money and the connexions to move millions of people to the area. The Mizrahim had none of that. Besides, if they were reasonably comfortable where they were, why would they move from one point in the Ottoman empire, where they had a living, to another, where they wouldn't?

Could you get a few Mizrahim communities in an ethic Arab Palestine? Sure. Could you get a Mizrahi Israel? I certainly don't see any way with a post 1900 PoD. Or even a pre1900 one, but I'm sure that such COULD exist.

The Arab leaders tried to wipe out the Jewish communities after the formation of Israel. With European antisemitism already making inroads in the 1930s - think of the Mufti Hussein in Palestine, I can see that happening there as well without Israel being founded. However, I'd agree that while Sephardic Jews might escape from anti-Jewish purges in Arab states, they'd probably only settle in Palestine without forming a state.
 
Is it possible for a Jewish State to be formed roughly where it is IOTL, but consists entirely of Jews from the Middle East, in a process initiated and shaped by the Mizrahim, independent from the events in Europe?

It could either be affected by the good will or bad will from their Arab neighbors.

First of all, "Mizrahi" - the final -m indicates pluralization, and so is correct when referring to people, but not to a nation (incorrect use of Hebrew pluralization is a pet peeve of mine)

Second, this is quite impossible. While there was, of course, a Mizrahi connection to Jerusalem and the Land of Israel, there was a much less strong tradition of moving there (compared to Ashkenazim). OTL Zionism saw basically only Yemeni Jews "making Aliyah" of all of the Mizrahim (before the violent expulsions following Israel's establishment). A combination of less persecution and less national consciousness weakens any possible Mizrahi aspiration for a nation-state. In the absence of Israel, national consciousness will probably only start becoming an issue in the 1910s at the earliest (when we see the start of Arab nationalism as a serious movement - though it only becomes significant in the 50s). Discrimination would probably start becoming an issue following the rise of Islamism, which in an Israel-less world would probably start becoming serious no early than the 50s as well (it will take time for the Saudis to start exporting their crazy).

Sorry :/
 
The Arab leaders tried to wipe out the Jewish communities after the formation of Israel. With European antisemitism already making inroads in the 1930s - think of the Mufti Hussein in Palestine, I can see that happening there as well without Israel being founded. However, I'd agree that while Sephardic Jews might escape from anti-Jewish purges in Arab states, they'd probably only settle in Palestine without forming a state.

You're postulating Arabic violence against Jews leading to Jews settling in an Arab area? How does THAT follow?
 
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