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So I'm working on a timeline where, due to a series of events, the slave trade exists until the 1830s in the United States and I wanted to know how plausible this is and if anybody had any criticisms, suggestions, or ideas.

So during the American Revolutionary War, George Washington is killed at the Battle of Fort Washington, Benedict Arnold eventually ascends to be Commander-in-Chief after securing what is eastern Canada today as part of the United States.

Due to the loss of these territories, British control of their Caribbean colonials becomes more threatened while the continent as a whole is becoming more peripheral for the British. Slavery is made illegal around the same time as IOTL in Britain, but they never really bother taking up the fight against the slave trade.

Meanwhile, in the United States the North has a lot more land and a lot more people (who are generally Catholic and French speaking) on their side. With these added numbers, the modern day New York City borough of Staten Island is made the capital of the United States. With a stronger North and a northern capital ITTL, the South feels more alienated and requires more concessions. One of which is how the slave trade is not made illegal in the entire United States until 1831, a couple of decades later than IOTL.

How could this affect the percentage of people who are enslaved or freemen in comparison to slaveholders and other white Southerners? I was thinking that this could result in a clear black majority across the Deep South (60-70% depending on the state) and cause an even larger white Southern exodus post-Civil War that would result in the South being a very different place with such a huge number of black people that Jim Crow laws are never able to be implemented, resulting in a very different history for the South.

Let me know what you think.
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