I have a question, especially for those who are experts in Islamic history, about how different the Iqta' system could've been. From what I've read, it was a relatively destructive system because a lot of those who received an Iqta' simply exploited/borderline plundered for wealth these areas, causing great economic/developmental decline in those lands. What I've gathered from my reading is that feudalism was less destructive, at least in part, due to the hereditary nature of fiefs (you don't destroy something that is, theoretically, indefinitely in your possession) and maybe due to the clearer relationships between liege and vassal? I hope I am interpreting that correctly. In any case, could the Iqta' system have been better than it was IOTL, and what effects could this have had?