Allies violate the Armistice of Compiègne

As said in the title (though I forgot the WI) - the Armistice required the Germans to hand over much of their ability to wage war. What if, during the Armistice, one of the Allies (presumably France) decided that they weren't going to get what they wanted in in the Treaty of Versailles, and decided to mount a full offensive against the now dramatically-weakened Germans in order to crush them and enforce much harsher terms?

I presume that the Germans will be in no state to actually resist (with most of their heavy equipment and aircraft in Allied hands), but what effect may this have on the actual treaty? What would be the response of the other Allies and the United States?
 
I think a lot depends on the exact circumstance, on how he whole action is seen as justified or not. Have the Germans done anything different to warrant this dramatic French response?
 
Unnecessary. Entente already occupies everything up to and beyond Rhine. Germans are in no position to resist anything except forcible breakup of Germany, which French weren't actually considering.
 
I daresay that once the armistice was declared, it would have been exceedingly difficult for anyone to get their armies moving again.
 

Cook

Banned
I daresay that once the armistice was declared, it would have been exceedingly difficult for anyone to get their armies moving again.

The terms of the Armistice gave the Germans 14 days to evacuate all remaining occupied territory, and just 28 days to evacuate to beyond the Rhine, and a further 30km from three bridgeheads. So while the fighting did stop, the allied armies did not; they advanced into the Rhineland right behind the withdrawing Germans and at a pace faster than would have been conceivable at any time since 1914. Once across the Rhine the German soldiers simply kept on going, all the way to their home towns.

occupation-of-germany-1000.jpg
 
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