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I know, I know - yet another WWII thread. But bear with me, as the search function didn't pull up anything similar to this that's very recent. And we all know the dangers of necromancy. ;)

Now, I'm not a very details oriented guy. First I'm just going to throw some broad ideas at you - this is what I'm trying to accomplish, see if this seems like a reasonable chain of events to you.

1. France and Poland jointly attack Germany
2. Soviet Union steamrolls through Poland
3. Soviet Union doesn't stop steamrolling when it reaches Nazi soldiers
4. ???
5. Profit?

The Details:
A.K.A. My poor attempt at a timeline
  • Now, for a Polish first strike I've heard it suggested that April 28th would be a good POD (or thereabouts) as that is when Adolf Hitler renounced the German-Polish Non-Aggression Pact.
  • Maybe for the other allies Chamberlain could reach this point sooner: "Past experience has shown that no reliance can be placed upon the promises of the present German Government." Which he said after the invasion of Poland (!!!). Why not after Germany broke the Munich Agreement (IIRC in two different ways!?) and made an ultimatum to Lithuania (March 1939).
  • One of the guys at the Nuremburg Trials said "if we did not collapse already in the year 1939 that was due only to the fact that during the Polish campaign, the approximately 110 French and British divisions in the West were held completely inactive against the 23 German divisions." Now if we're talking April or May (maybe even June?) for the Allied First Strike then some of those units would have already been transferred.
  • Now, with the Soviet Union would it even make sense to invade Poland first? While there was some negotiations regarding some sort of cooperation, they didn't really formalize into the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact that we know until around August. Still, with the above mentioned quote about Germany's defeat, I could see the Soviets seeing an opportunity - to not just take Poland, but also Germany. If they have to roll through both countries to do it, who cares? (Or maybe I'm misreading their boldness here).
  • Finally IIRC the United States helped the Western Allies to arm themselves after the invasion of Poland (pre-Lend-Lease, I believe everything was bought with gold). Would they still sell arms if the war happened a few months early? My guess is yes, they would. Would this have any significant effects on the economy or FDR's election? Especially if things in Europe seem to be less dire than they were IOTL.

Besides all that, Italy has already begun invading other European countries. Would they and/or Germany sue for peace in such a way that their fascist regimes continued on? This is WAY before "Absolute Victory". Although maybe the people would do the Allies a favor and remove these regimes?

Also, what does this do to Allied-Soviet relations? They were pretty pissed off at the Winter War. Here they're probably a lot more fresh than they were IOTL 1945 - would they make a move on the Soviets (if the details of the conclusion of the war with Germany allowed that)?
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