Alliance victory in Spain during the WotSS

In the War of Spanish Succession, the allies managed to take Madrid twice but were defeated both times. What could help Charles III to conquer at least a decent part of Castile with Madrid and hold it for the duration of the entire war? And what would be the consequences for the war? Seeing as Louis refused to agree to the demand to remove his grandson from the throne, now that he doesn't have it peace could come sooner and France would lose a lot. Just a thought, anyway....
 
Doesn't the Alliance have the problem that w hile no one wants to see the Bourbons on the throne, no one really wants to see Charles V's empire revived either?
 
At the time when, for instance, Madrid fell for the first time (in 1706) both Charles and his brother Joseph were still young and capable of fathering children. It was much less of a problem then if Philip became king, and it's why they supported him in the first place.
 
By 1706 Joseph has already rendered his wife sterile through syphilis. For the allies having a realistically chance (and intent) to win you need to have both Joseph and Charles o father sons to prevent the risk of union (or Charles honoring the Mutual Act of Succession) AND the Allies holding ground in Spain (that is harder than the first point btw).
 
If that is so why did they put so much effort in the campaigns in Spain up to 1710? Even the British who wouldn't like something like that disturbing the balance in continental Europe?
 
If that is so why did they put so much effort in the campaigns in Spain up to 1710? Even the British who wouldn't like something like that disturbing the balance in continental Europe?
Because of the Mutual Pact of Succession, Charles wasn't supposed to succeed in Germany, Joseph's untimely death caused a lot of shit on the Allies.
 
That just seems a little weird...if it's true it means the allies fought the bigger part of the war without actually wanting to succeed in it. And if Charles actually took Madrid and held it long enough could they forbid him from being the king of Spain? And would they want to...they could make him sign a pact maybe like Philip V did. Would the Habsburgs accept that?
 
That just seems a little weird...if it's true it means the allies fought the bigger part of the war without actually wanting to succeed in it. And if Charles actually took Madrid and held it long enough could they forbid him from being the king of Spain? And would they want to...they could make him sign a pact maybe like Philip V did. Would the Habsburgs accept that?

The Allies wanted keep the France away from Spain and until HRE Joseph I die in 1711 with only daughters (excluded by the Austrian succession) they were perfectly fine with supporting Carlos III as King. The War of Spanish succession started in 1701 and ended in 1714, with talkings about peace starting in 1712 so for the biggest part of the war the allies wanted replace Felipe V with Carlos III. And after Joseph I's death and Karl VI's election as HRE none wanted him on the Spanish throne anymore but they instead wanted just be sure who France and Spain will never be united under the same King.

Monter the Mutual Pact of Succession and the Austrian inherithance being in the male line only were exactly the reasons for which Karl was Joseph'I heir presuntive and in the end his successor
 
The Allies wanted keep the France away from Spain and until HRE Joseph I die in 1711 with only daughters (excluded by the Austrian succession) they were perfectly fine with supporting Carlos III as King. The War of Spanish succession started in 1701 and ended in 1714, with talkings about peace starting in 1712 so for the biggest part of the war the allies wanted replace Felipe V with Carlos III. And after Joseph I's death and Karl VI's election as HRE none wanted him on the Spanish throne anymore but they instead wanted just be sure who France and Spain will never be united under the same King.

Monter the Mutual Pact of Succession and the Austrian inherithance being in the male line only were exactly the reasons for which Karl was Joseph'I heir presuntive and in the end his successor

Yeah, and besides, I've read something about the English government at the time that wouldn't agree to a peace agreement without Charles getting Spain so if they agreed to it that pretty much dictated the outcome
 
Top