Deleted member 97083
The Mughal Emperors were immensely rich. So, if the Dutch were weakened, indebted, or less centralized (perhaps the Netherlands is occupied by France or some other crisis occurs), and a Mughal emperor was inclined towards risky investments, could the Mughals have bought a large number of shares in the Dutch East India Company, with the Mughal Empire becoming the principal shareholder in the Company? What would happen afterward?
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