Still, when Napoleon III intervened in Mexico in the 1860s, Britain and Spain supported her on the grounds that Mexico had suspended the payment of interests on those loans she owed all three of Britain, France and Spain. Assuming an earlier Mexican-American War breaks out and is fought in, say, 1838-1840 (or about that time), would it be possible to have Mexico being invaded in the late 1840s by a European power for similar reasons?
Britain and Spain only assisted France in its invasion because they intended to occupy Veracruz (and only Veracruz) to force Mexico to pay its debts. When the two powers discovered France wanted to force a regime change, they withdrew.