AHC the Gaijin Shogunate

I'm up for something silly right now. With any PoD after 1185 have a European force or a descended clan establish a foreign based shogunate in Japan.
 
British East India Company, in concert with the British Government decide to invade Japan post-the first opium war, after sending a request to open the markets in Japan. When that is refused, after the First Opium War, the British decide to open the markets forcefully - leading to the complete takeover of Kyushu and the complete opening of trade between Japan and the rest of the world via Kyushu, which is handed over to the British East Asian Company - which is transferred Hong Kong as well.

Eventually the East Asian Company is brought into conflict again, perhaps through attacks on British citizens, or reneging on treaty concessions, or naked rage from the Japanese - leading to the East Asian Company, later backed by the British Army - to fight, with Kristian Japanese troops as well as Company soldiers. With the technological advantage, and Imperial support, the Company achieves victory, controlling Kyoto, and later Toyko. The peace treaty leaves the Company intact, which supports the a Kristian with an English Wife as Shogun, bankrolling them. With Kyushu and the East Asian Company backing the Kristian Shogunate in Tokyo, you have your Gaijin Shogunate.

As the Great Game expands, or the potential for WW1 still taking place, the Kristian Shogunate becomes a major factor that supports the White Army during the Russian Civil War, leading the majority of the efforts of the Siberian Intervention - using the industrialised Japan as the source for upgrading the Siberian Railway to double track. Strengthening the Whites may well lead to preventing the rise of the Soviet Union.
 
But would the British lend the BEIC money to conquer Japan? Because the wars in India nearly left Britain broke which lead to the Opium Wars in the first place. Japan would give them a market to sell their goods but it doesn't have the resources India has.
 
But would the British lend the BEIC money to conquer Japan? Because the wars in India nearly left Britain broke which lead to the Opium Wars in the first place. Japan would give them a market to sell their goods but it doesn't have the resources India has.
Depends on whether the British think it is a good idea to offload a rather large sum of their debts to the BEAC as part of the deal. Huge loan in the governments favour, reduction of debts, yadda yadda. Play the balance sheets so that the BEAC is stuck handling the debts. That frees up the government a bit. Plus, the Dutch continued to trade with Japan even when limited, forcing open those markets at the very least puts Britain in the position to control both trade from Europe to Asia - but trade within East Asia and the Pacific itself. With both Chinese, and Japanese markets opened, they are also open to one another - and potentially America. Lots of Pacific Trade. (Although, that pretty much means Hawaii is on top of the list of "Things Britain Wants".

Heck, just look at the trade between China and Australia at the moment. Imagine if that was all paying tariffs to the exchequer.

But one other factor is that having Kyushu gives Britain a Mega-Hong-Kong with the possibility of a especially loyal population in the Japanese Kristian community. Without their support, I don't think it would be attempted. Perhaps that is the PoD, an enterprising MP, or commander makes that contact, gets that support, and that leads the resources that were involved in the Opium War being re-purposed to solidify control over East Asia.
 
Top