for a country like Korea in the 18th century, perhaps most East Asian nations in general, almost too many things were monopolised- porcelain production, gunpowder production, printing presses, so on and so forth. The list is endless.
The reasoning for such extensive monopolisation of the economy was for a "strong tax base". What sort of explanation would suffice, if so, to persuade the government to allow the markets for more private management? How could the government, in short, have a large tax revenue if it liberalises the economy?