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How can Spain have an at least 20% mestizo minority in the 21st century, while the Americas are at least 50% more Spanish than OTL?

Bonus points if this mostly happens before 1940 (because having wealthy mestizos move to a slightly-alternate prosperous Spain in the days when migration becomes easy, is easy).

Bonus points if Spain has so many mestizos and America is so Spanicized that a Spaniard and an American (continental sense, not national) are indistinguishable.
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