Asian countries such as Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, and others have ancient none Western Cultures, but have reached 1st world status, and have stable democratic societies. There are many cultural models that can reach modernity. Cultural changes can be introduced from the outside, but the beneficial elements have to be internalized, and added to the cultural mix. From the mid 19th Century on Japan incorporated Western Ideas into it's cultural framework, but they remained Japanese. They changed what they needed to become a modern power. Latin America can do the same thing. The main ingredients of Western success are Freedom, Equality, and rule of law. Education is the key to incorporating those concepts into Latin Culture. It's been pointed out Latinos living in Western Countries are more entrepreneurial then they were in their native lands. Given the framework of Freedom, Equality, and Rule of law they do much better. Those are the things they need to reach 1st World Status.
"Modernity" is a vague term applied inconsistently across time frames and regions; for instance, the idea that "modernity" arrived in East Asia with Western influence is a problematic reinterpretation of a relationship which frequently involved Western powers
deliberately impoverishing Asian countries (or in the case of Korea, Japan employing European-style colonialism in the peninsula and becoming a party to the Unequal Treaties against China). China was so prosperous and modern in fact that the way the Europeans found to get around their general lack of interest in their substandard products in insufficient amounts was to
flood the country with narcotics.
Then let's discuss Freedom, Equality and rule of law as "ingredients of Western success": the US remained a legally, politically, socially and economically unequal country into the 1960s; Germany was an autocratic monarchy throughout its entire period of industrial and imperial growth; the UK
deindustrialized India to fuel its own industrial revolution.
Your analysis of Latin America's problems is deterministic and too narrow.
Question, are we talking about a culture without European involvement - in which case, I am not qualified to comment.
If we are talking about a world were colonisation happens, it would have to be colonisation by the British or the Dutch (or somebody Northern). Basically anybody BUT Spain and Portugal.
The most successful settler societies (the US, Canada, Australia, New Zealand) all started as colonies established by Protestant countries and marked by Adam Smith-style economies, cultures that put emphasis on individual achievement and did not as fully transpose European class-systems straight onto the 'New World' without some adaptation or try and empty it of all it's precious metals like Spain did. Latin America underperformed because the economy to start with was flawed based on massive estates rather and sustainable yeoman farming and craft manufacture, because they were often slave economies, because the style of work and financial activity that sustained the growth of these cultures was based on Usary which is unlikely to be supported by a Catholic population and because there was limited if not no class mobility and therefore not attractive places to immigrate to until much later - even then more usually by people leaving poverty in southern Europe.
A bit simple, but Latin and Central American revolutions in the 19th century were usually led by a landed elite and the population stayed less literate because there was not the same emphasis on at least being able to read that was deemed important in Protestant cultures where ones journey to God was personal and based on your interaction with the Bible and personal contemplation. An illiterate culture is not a good place to start for building a new nation or a modern economy. This also has a huge effect on the growth of a middle class and the development of efficient government at the local or provincial level either so these often physically giant countries ended up under-explored and developed, under-populated in the interior and poorly run, suffering from corruption and then whoever rose up in the vacuum after the inevitable popular rebellion or coup removed the landlords. Compare the difference between a small settlement in rural Argentina and the people of the Falkland Islands - totally different, because their governments and ways of life are markedly different. Another example is comparing the Northern states in the US with their industry and vibrant market economy that drove forward, paying for the development of the US interior and its development into a world power, and the Southern states within the English speaking world, where more traditional, European, class-based societies and slave-owning thrived, the economy stagnated longer-term.
You probably need to change the country who colonised it and probably make the native peoples there more powerful, or rinse and repeat.
There's a lot to unpack in this post, but the bolded sentence stood out to me as particularly weird. It would be like comparing rural Maine to St Pierre and Miquelon: in the grand scheme of things, hypothetical differences in the regulatory frameworks have less to do with the different ways of life than the fact that one is a rural area and another is an isolated island whose sustenance depends solely on subsidies from the metropole.
Your proposal is further undermined that, just to use an example that you bring up but don't actually compare with your other cited countries, Argentina was just as prosperous and well-run as any of Canada, Australia or New Zealand in the late 19th and early 20th century (and arguably well into the 20th century at that). The same was true for Chile, a country which was also potent enough to fight and win an expansionist war against two neighboring countries and to defeat its former colonial masters at sea.
Furthermore, the idea that "if it had been settled by Northern Europeans it would have been prosperous" is a
very dangerous idea with little relation to historical realities: aside from the fact that European colonization elsewhere notably did
not lead to similar results (are we supposed to ignore South Africa, which was settled by both Dutch and English protestants?), the realities
within the Thirteen Colonies themselves demonstrate that there is no hard and fast rule when it comes to "settler stock". Not to mention the fact that, y'know, imported slave labor in the East and imported Chinese daylaborers played incredibly vital parts in just the USA's nation building, it becomes an increasingly unsustainable notion.
And seriously, the easiest answer to this question literally involves removing European colonization from the equation, and even then some of you seem to think the region was doomed to poverty! A blunted Spanish conquest of Mesoamerica, restricting them to the Spanish Main and the Caribbean and Gulf Coasts makes an invasion of Perú itself a logistical nightmare bordering on the impossible, and that leaves a massive, organized, and prosperous native Empire in a position that even pre-Meiji Japan would have envied. And the butterflies would spread quite quickly from there, generally hampering European growth in a variety of ways: it would compound European bullion problems as they no longer get unlimited access to the plentiful gold and silver of the Americas; it would slow down the adoption of revolutionary crops in Europe like maize, tomato and
especially potatoes, and would make the Pacific Ocean
in general an incredibly distant and alien place for Europe compared to OTL.
This thread is illuminating in two very tragic ways: it highlights the continued popularity of certain deterministic interpretations of history that have frequently veered into (or been drawn from) racist theories about the region, and it really brings into focus the general lack of imagination when it comes to Latin America.
Seriously, some of the comments here make me want to write a Latin American TL with a POD using one of the earlier colonial rebellions of the 18th century (Juan Santos Atahualpa and Túpac Amaru II come to mind) from scratch. Too bad I've already got more than enough on my plate as it is.
This thread has only heightened my desire to write a "no conquest of the Inca" timeline with an early failure of Cortez as a POD. Well, that, and an Argentina where the 1930 coup fails.