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Actually, during WWII, the Japanese threatened and bullied their way into occupying French Indochina, prior to the US freezing of their assets, and oil embargo. But, their attacks on the Dutch East Indies, British Empire and US did not start until after the embargo.

The challenge is to have Japan strike at Dutch and/or British and/or American possessions in Southeast Asia without their being an embargo by those powers?

How could this have happened? Is it even plausible?
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