It's a difficult request. The Magyars moved in because the Pannonian basin is such wide, fertile, productive land, and naturally they pushed the Slavs out.
The slavs of hungary probably assimilated into a dominant minority similar to the turks of anatolia, azerbajian and BalkanActually in hungary's case the bigger question is why they didnt end up slavic. The number of the magyars who arrived in the carpathian basin was at most around 200.000 and likely less. If we assume that the local population is mostly slavic the magyars should have ended up as the bolgars. For some reason they didnt.
Not quite doomed. In OTL, the Normans conquered England. William the Bastard (he really should have been William the really Fat) spent 75% of the rest of his life at Rouen. He did come up to England three time stop suppress a revolt. The rest of his time? Court in London, going to Rome, visiting the Norman countryside. Makes me wonder why he wanted to be King so badly.
200k would be a significant % of the population already present in the Pannonian Basin though, possibly 15-25% or even more.Actually in hungary's case the bigger question is why they didnt end up slavic. The number of the magyars who arrived in the carpathian basin was at most around 200.000 and likely less. If we assume that the local population is mostly slavic the magyars should have ended up as the bolgars. For some reason they didnt.
200k would be a significant % of the population already present in the Pannonian Basin though, possibly 15-25% or even more.
It is certainly possible, but the process would take many years, maybe a century to finish. Also it depends on other places where germans might migrate to.What are the odds or prospects of the East Franks ending up predominant in one or more chunks of traditional Hungary? Would Germans filling up to the bend of the Danube (old Roman Pannonia) or to the Carpathians and Transylvanian Alps, be any more likely than say, taking over all Poland.
Actually in hungary's case the bigger question is why they didnt end up slavic. The number of the magyars who arrived in the carpathian basin was at most around 200.000 and likely less. If we assume that the local population is mostly slavic the magyars should have ended up as the bolgars. For some reason they didnt.
This assumes that the Slavs were the predominant population, when it's actually more likely that they, too, were a small group of conquerers over a long-established agrarian population in the southeastern Europe - Thracians, Illyrians, or Dacians, perhaps.
The Slavs were hardly given any mention at all in Roman sources aside from being a distant people far beyond the reach of Rome, known only by a Germanic exonym (Venedi, from Germanic "Wend"). It's hard to imagine that the ancient farming populations of the Balkans were just wiped out and replaced completely by small migratory steppe tribes, no matter whether they be Slavic, Uralic, or Turkic speaking.