AHC: Indian Britain


IRC, I was remembering an argument that subsistence wages should tend to be higher, all things equal, because of greater needs for clothing, heating, and subsistence has to be higher, all things equal. (Of course all things might not be equal). That's part of the argument that cooler climates should tend to have more incentives to subsitute labour with machines to become competitive, etc. because labour costs are higher, but otherwise tend to be less competitive. I think you see some things like this in Robert Allen's wage theories of industrialisation, though I can't really remember if this is where I've seen this.

One other argument is that there is a pattern which is "'Europe' (high labour productivity, low land productivity, relatively speaking) and 'Asia' (low labour productivity, high land productivity, relatively speaking )" and that this is driven by a different composition of wheat to rice agriculture where: "rice agriculture had an intrinsically high labour intensity => lower food prices => higher fertility => higher population density at a lower standard of living" (both from a tweet on the subject).
 
IRC, I was remembering an argument that subsistence wages should tend to be higher, all things equal, because of greater needs for clothing, heating, and subsistence has to be higher, all things equal. (Of course all things might not be equal). That's part of the argument that cooler climates should tend to have more incentives to subsitute labour with machines to become competitive, etc. because labour costs are higher, but otherwise tend to be less competitive. I think you see some things like this in Robert Allen's wage theories of industrialisation, though I can't really remember if this is where I've seen this.

One other argument is that there is a pattern which is "'Europe' (high labour productivity, low land productivity, relatively speaking) and 'Asia' (low labour productivity, high land productivity, relatively speaking )" and that this is driven by a different composition of wheat to rice agriculture where: "rice agriculture had an intrinsically high labour intensity => lower food prices => higher fertility => higher population density at a lower standard of living" (both from a tweet on the subject).
That explanation kinda makes sense but it feels a lot like post-facto rationalisation.
It's worth noting Bengal was delivering almost a quarter of goods output worldwide in the Early Modern Era
 
Indian's conquer Britain? Well, there's a large ethnic "Indian" population there now. The Home Secretary is of Pakistani decent...
 
As said previously, the Imperial Federation approach basically does the job.

But in the spirit of the OP - I'd suggest a strong Chola Empire that rather than uniting India, becomes the premier Indian Ocean power, taking its historical influence and take direct control - so a Tamil-colonised Sumatra - using this as a way to solidify overseas control. Since we're seeing them colonise along trade routes, then we can see that happen in the other direction in time - so Tamil settlements in Somalia/Yemen are a possibility (perhaps a Tamil Zanzibar?)

Once they've reached there, and are making money in the European market via Egypt, it would make sense to pull a Portugal - find a cheaper way round. Suddenly you have them sailing and settling past the Cape of Good Hope, finding West African markets and gold.

Basically, if we accept that the Chola exerted influence towards sources and and destinations for trade goods - why wouldn't they do so if they survived to the "Age of Exploration" and value new markets.
 
As said previously, the Imperial Federation approach basically does the job.

But in the spirit of the OP - I'd suggest a strong Chola Empire that rather than uniting India, becomes the premier Indian Ocean power, taking its historical influence and take direct control - so a Tamil-colonised Sumatra - using this as a way to solidify overseas control. Since we're seeing them colonise along trade routes, then we can see that happen in the other direction in time - so Tamil settlements in Somalia/Yemen are a possibility (perhaps a Tamil Zanzibar?)

Once they've reached there, and are making money in the European market via Egypt, it would make sense to pull a Portugal - find a cheaper way round. Suddenly you have them sailing and settling past the Cape of Good Hope, finding West African markets and gold.

Basically, if we accept that the Chola exerted influence towards sources and and destinations for trade goods - why wouldn't they do so if they survived to the "Age of Exploration" and value new markets.
Would the Chola have colonial rivals in this potential scenario or is the only Indian colonial power? ( i believe a balkanized India is a better candidate to be colonizer material)
 
Would the Chola have colonial rivals in this potential scenario or is the only Indian colonial power? ( i believe a balkanized India is a better candidate to be colonizer material)

I'm not sure, possibly, but I expect it'd be a west-indian power rather than the East since the Chola seemed to have that locked down, but I don't think they'd have the same focus on naval affairs considering their position in Western India is less coastal, and more "Between Persia and the Ganges"/"Rock and a Hard Place".

But I don't see why there couldn't be.
 
I'm not sure, possibly, but I expect it'd be a west-indian power rather than the East since the Chola seemed to have that locked down, but I don't think they'd have the same focus on naval affairs considering their position in Western India is less coastal, and more "Between Persia and the Ganges"/"Rock and a Hard Place".

But I don't see why there couldn't be.
True, i think the Chola would probably hold influence over Western India, while maybe an Eastern Indian rival could dispute its hegemony over the Indian Ocean.
 
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