AHC: Germany gains Palestine and the Sinai

With a PoD after 15 June 1888 -but preferably before ~1910-, what would in your opinion be the most plausible way for Germany to gain Palestine and the Sinai -either through peaceful acquisition or war- as colonies?
 
Germany allies with Italy during the Italo-Turkish War. The extra German troops destroy the Ottomans and in the ensuing peace, Palestine is given to Germany. As for the Sinai, possibly having Egypt ally with the Ottomans, or have some agreement with the UK that Germany gets to occupy the Sinai instead of Britain could work if you could find a way to get them to do that.
 
Germany allies with Italy during the Italo-Turkish War. The extra German troops destroy the Ottomans and in the ensuing peace, Palestine is given to Germany. As for the Sinai, possibly having Egypt ally with the Ottomans, or have some agreement with the UK that Germany gets to occupy the Sinai instead of Britain could work if you could find a way to get them to do that.

A PoD after the Italo-Turkish War would definitely be too late, unfortunately. Additionally, it seems rather unlikely that the UK would deliberately agree to Germany taking the Sinai; this would draw a border too close to the Suez Canal, which might cause some serious strategic problems eventually.
 

Dirk_Pitt

Banned
A PoD after the Italo-Turkish War would definitely be too late, unfortunately. Additionally, it seems rather unlikely that the UK would deliberately agree to Germany taking the Sinai; this would draw a border too close to the Suez Canal, which might cause some serious strategic problems eventually.

That's what I thought. It'd be odd... Britain would never accept it.
 
I didn't want to open a whole new thread for this question, and since it's very close to the topic of this thread, I'll just ask here instead.

How could the Ottoman Empire reincorporate all of Egypt -de facto, as it already has this status de jure- into their realm, with a PoD no earlier than 1888? The Suez question would of course be tricky here, but is it generally feasible for the Ottomans to retake Egypt militarily?
 
I didn't want to open a whole new thread for this question, and since it's very close to the topic of this thread, I'll just ask here instead.

How could the Ottoman Empire reincorporate all of Egypt -de facto, as it already has this status de jure- into their realm, with a PoD no earlier than 1888? The Suez question would of course be tricky here, but is it generally feasible for the Ottomans to retake Egypt militarily?

Egypt was considered a very important British possession, so it's unlikely to be given up peacefully. That leaves war. Since to get to the rest of Egypt the Ottomans need either to go through north-eastern Egypt (for which they need to take the Suez) or to go by sea (for which they need naval superiority against the Royal Navy) it's unlikely that the Ottomans could manage this in WW1. But if the USA never enters WW1 and the bankrupted British Empire collapses a few decades after the war is over, the Ottomans might manage to reclaim Egypt.
 
Egypt was considered a very important British possession, so it's unlikely to be given up peacefully. That leaves war. Since to get to the rest of Egypt the Ottomans need either to go through north-eastern Egypt (for which they need to take the Suez) or to go by sea (for which they need naval superiority against the Royal Navy) it's unlikely that the Ottomans could manage this in WW1. But if the USA never enters WW1 and the bankrupted British Empire collapses a few decades after the war is over, the Ottomans might manage to reclaim Egypt.

I wasn't really thinking about WW1 though, but about a PoD as close to 1888 as possible. Let's say that for whatever reason, there is a split in the relations of Britain and France -going as far as to antagonise these two nations somewhat-, coupled with an approachment of France and the Ottoman Empire - could this possibly lead to the desired outcome?
 
I wasn't really thinking about WW1 though, but about a PoD as close to 1888 as possible. Let's say that for whatever reason, there is a split in the relations of Britain and France -going as far as to antagonise these two nations somewhat-, coupled with an approachment of France and the Ottoman Empire - could this possibly lead to the desired outcome?

The thing is that GB would ally with Germany then.
India is the life blood of the empire, eygpt is its throat. Take eygpt you kill British power in India (in the empires eyes) so Egypt will fall with the last of British blood
 
The thing is that GB would ally with Germany then.

Ah, now we're getting to the heart of the matter. ;)

So if there was actually a war between France/OE and the UK, would it be possible that the UK offers the Sinai peninsula -and thus a somewhat shared control over the Suez Canal- to Germany as a 'spoil of war', in order to get them joining the conflict on the British side?
 
Ah, now we're getting to the heart of the matter. ;)

So if there was actually a war between France/OE and the UK, would it be possible that the UK offers the Sinai peninsula -and thus a somewhat shared control over the Suez Canal- to Germany as a 'spoil of war', in order to get them joining the conflict on the British side?

No they would offer parts of France. They spent so long keeping the Russians out of the Med they wont be happy if the Germans showed up.
 
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