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Chief idea I took from this thread, and largely inspired by this:

With no PoDs prior to 1744 (when Robert Clive attempted suicide OTL) how, by 1900, can France hold direct rule over as much of the Indian subcontinent as possible? Obviously this will likely require an altered French Revolution, and something akin to OTL's Uprising of 1857.

Here's something to start -- following the War of Austrian Succession, the French do not return British interests in Madras as part of the peace in 1749.
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