AHC: French India (w 1744 PoD)

Chief idea I took from this thread, and largely inspired by this:

With no PoDs prior to 1744 (when Robert Clive attempted suicide OTL) how, by 1900, can France hold direct rule over as much of the Indian subcontinent as possible? Obviously this will likely require an altered French Revolution, and something akin to OTL's Uprising of 1857.

Here's something to start -- following the War of Austrian Succession, the French do not return British interests in Madras as part of the peace in 1749.
 
Are you just repeatedly deleting and re-posting that post?
Anyway, the French Revolution might not even happen considering the income that would come from India.
 
Are you just repeatedly deleting and re-posting that post?
Anyway, the French Revolution might not even happen considering the income that would come from India.
It would take a while for them to make up their losses in India and for it to start being profitable though. Even then, how long will it take for the wealth to flow from the nobility to the 'proletariat'?
 
Have Bengal play Britain off of France, leaving the French with a greater foothold in the South. Then later on, they go for Bengal themselves, slowly and carefully, and head on from there. The French just need to make sure they make the right alliances, as well, to cement their grip....so perhaps backing Mysore at Hyderabad's expense and pushing into the Marathas thereafter with Rajput support. It's all about the local alliances they make.
 
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