alternatehistory.com

The reign of the Catholic Monarchs (Ferdinand and Isabella) saw the unification of Spain and the dawn of the Spanish Empire, but also a major centralization of power which came at the expense of the independent political influence of the nobility and bourgeoisie (which, prior to their reign, had been some of the most *progressive* in Europe).

My question is, could the 16th and 17th centuries in general have still seen the former without the latter? Mind you, the earlier moves toward absolutism don’t necessarily have to change; after all, the English parliament had been reduced to a rubber stamp for in a manner similar to that of the Spanish Cortes, but managed to reassert their counterbalancing role in governance later. Could Spain have managed the same?
Top