AHC: Completely eradicate slavery in the Phillipines before the US annexation

TinyTartar

Banned
We are all aware that the Philippines had a vibrant culture of enslavement up until the American annexation of the islands.

The Moros in fact arguably rebelled because of slavery in addition to their traditional religious issues with being lumped in with the rest of the archipelago.

Obviously, the Spanish could have done a lot more about the problem than they did in OTL but chose not to expend the resources on it.

What could have caused this to trend to change?

Did the Philippines really need the US to get them to stop slavery, or could it have been approached a lot earlier and dealt with?

And how successful do you think the US was at getting slavery over and done with after the Phillipine-American war?
 
first of all, the Spanish need to mature enough to the point that the would eradicate slavery just like otl by 1890s. The Spanish did impose some kind of slavery in the islands within the centuries they were in control.

The Moros won't eradicate slavery on their own. The Spanish or an independent Philippines which have complete control over Moro lands will do this in the late 19th century or earlier depending on the Pod.

The next question would be what is the Area Of Philippines covered? To the Americans and otl it is everything what you consider Philippines today. back in those days, are Moro lands even considered part of the Philippines? Guam, the rest Spanish East Indies were culturally closer because of Spanish to someone in Luzon. We can even say that Guam and the rest of the Spanish East Indies were part of what is controlled by the one who is Manila. While the one who is in Manila has no control over whoever controls Sulu not unless there would be total political change wherein the Islamic sultanates would cease to exist.
 

TinyTartar

Banned
The next question would be what is the Area Of Philippines covered? To the Americans and otl it is everything what you consider Philippines today. back in those days, are Moro lands even considered part of the Philippines? Guam, the rest Spanish East Indies were culturally closer because of Spanish to someone in Luzon. We can even say that Guam and the rest of the Spanish East Indies were part of what is controlled by the one who is Manila. While the one who is in Manila has no control over whoever controls Sulu not unless there would be total political change wherein the Islamic sultanates would cease to exist.

There was some administrative turnover, yes, but I'd think that had the Spanish really made an effort, they could have completely controlled the Southern Islands rather than just having a bunch of coastal forts.

And it does make me wonder, why were the Moros so into slavery? What did it gain them? Was it just a reactionary trend in their leadership, or was it crucial to their socio economic way of life like in the American South?
 
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