I was thinking, if Mehmet II Fatih could call himself Kaiser i Rum, why couldn't a Byzantine Emperor become the Khan or the Sultan of a newly incorporated Turkic population in Anatolia?
Bonus if the Byzantine Empire adopted some successful systems of the OTL Ottoman Empire, such as the millet system, or the Janissary, etc.
Bonus if the Byzantine Empire adopted some successful systems of the OTL Ottoman Empire, such as the millet system, or the Janissary, etc.