AHC: Britain exploits divisions between colonies to keep them down, from 1764 or later.

raharris1973

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If Britain's government wants to use divisions or potential divisions to forestall united colonial resistance to parliamentary policy and the principle of parliamentary taxation, how could they best go about it?

I do not know if it would work, but one potential way to go would be to start by looking at which colonies participated in the Stamp Act Congress of 1765 and which did not.

Of the 13 colonies, Virginia, North Carolina, Georgia and New Hampshire did not send representatives to the Stamp Act Congress.

On the remaining 9 colonies who were represented, three more hesitated to sign the declaration of rights and grievances: South Carolina, Connecticut and New York.

(This by the way, might be the origin of the stereotype that Loyalism was stronger in the south than the north)

Is their any favoritism Britain could have shown to the non-attending or non-declaring colonies to keep them loyal over the following decades?

The easiest ones to come to mind are territorial. For example, perhaps reversing the Proclamation Line Policy and ratifying the non-Congress colonies territorial claims to the Mississippi and encouraging western expansion?

For example, instead of the Quebec Act as it was, London confirms Virginia's claim to the old northwest up to the Great Lakes and Kentucky. It confirms North Carolinas claim to Tennessee. It confirms Georgia's claim to Alabama and Mississippi (north of Florida). As for New Hampshire, it did not have territorial claims I recall, but perhaps it could be given an unsolicited gift of Maine [probably not until the 1770s when Massachusetts is definitively in bad odor with London. In the 1760s, maybe fiscal relief without any territorial grants could be enough to keep New Hampshire loyal. The main reason New Hampshire did not participate in the Stamp Act Congress per wiki was because of an internal fiscal crisis apparently.

Would these tactics be effective in forestalling joint embargoes, congresses and ultimately rebellions among the 13 colonies? Or would they fail?

Could other tactics of divide-and-rule, but not "appease all" (which is too easy and overdone in the Whig prescription for history), have been effective?
 
Well, the Quebec Act itself was classic divide-and-rule. It basically bought the loyalty of the Canadiens, while angering the Americans.

Florida and the Caribbean colonies didn't join the revolt either, though I don't know as much about what the British did there.
 
Well, the Quebec Act itself was classic divide-and-rule. It basically bought the loyalty of the Canadiens, while angering the Americans.

Florida and the Caribbean colonies didn't join the revolt either, though I don't know as much about what the British did there.

Quebec Act had exactly the effects you're talking about, but it wasn't planned in such a manner. They just wanted to (a) get a quick peace deal with the French, (b) continue the profitable fur-trading of the Canadiens, which would be damaged by settlement and (c) encourage Anglo-settlers to focus on moving down the Atlantic coast prior to the inland.
 
It wouldn't take much, given that even for a while into the rebellion the colonies didn't seek independence from the metropole. The problem with promising them territory out west though is that it contradicts with the policy of limiting settlement in order to keep Native American nations from causing a headache for the British.
 

raharris1973

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Well although allowing westward expansion by southern colonies invites conflict with Indians, it seems like a great way to divert Virginia and it's political and military leadership contributions to the Revolution away towards western expansion. George Washington, Jefferson , Madison, Patrick Henry all get too busy with land speculation, property development and militia skirmishes with Indians to participate in the Revolution - that costs Boston and New England vital allies and limits the rebellion problem to the north.
 
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