AHC: An Equal Polish-Prussian Union?

Equality between Poles and Prussians is the only requirement, it can be a democratic state, aristocratic state or socialist state, with no time restriction for the PoD.
 
Prussia manages to hang on to its Third Partition lands, either by not being beat so bad in 1806 or by receiving them instead of the Rhineland at Vienna.

When 1848 rolls around, the Poles revolt as OTL, except ITTL most of them are in Prussia. The uprisings are put down, as in OTL, but the Prussians are forced to give greater rights to the Poles, either in the form of an Austria-Hungary type situation or simply legislation to give Poles more rights (Polish language is given equality with German, end of Germanization policies and colonization)
 
Nope. Can't have OTL 'Prussian' without Teutonic Order-State, and can't have that without ever-increasing enmity between the Order and Poland, which will ultimately come to a head and result in one or the other dominating the region (check out my TL for---oh never mind), which will result in one or the other group being 'subject' to the other. I just don't see it happening.
 
Austrians eventually inherit the Polish crown and add it to their lands. This is early enough that the Prussians aren't too strong a regional bloc and are still Catholic. The Crown maintains and eventually devolves into a triple monarchy, with the Germans, the Poles, and the Magyars being the three pillars of the empire. The Prussians, as Germans-in-Poland, are granted special status and have equal rights with the Poles.

A little bit shorter than plausible, but sounds about right. Always liked the idea of the Prussians being the Hapsburg's men inside a Kingdom of Poland, perhaps in a vein similar to the Transylvanian Saxons.
 
Nope. Can't have OTL 'Prussian' without Teutonic Order-State, and can't have that without ever-increasing enmity between the Order and Poland, which will ultimately come to a head and result in one or the other dominating the region (check out my TL for---oh never mind), which will result in one or the other group being 'subject' to the other. I just don't see it happening.

There were intermarriage between Polish and Prussians nobles as well, it's not exactly centuries of enmity and confrontation.
 
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