As we know, politics in late Plantagenet England wasn't beanbag. It seems to me that after the premature death of Edward IV control of the realm was either going to fall to the Woodville faction or to Richard of Glouchester's faction, with the loser getting the chop. IOTL Richard gained control, chopped some Woodvilles, 'hosted' Edward V and his brother, and unquestionably arranged for their untimely demises. However, how could Richard allow Edward V to remain on the throne (and alive) since it seems likely that once he reached his majority he would take revenge on the man who offed his mother's relatives. In other words, if Richard doesn;t give Eddie and Richie the chop as kids, he gets chopped when Eddie turns of age. Therefore, was Richard justified in the murder of the princes?
Alert - I am a Ricardian.